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The correct answer is false.
It is false that the slope of the investment demand function indicates how sensitive investment is to changes in real interest rates. The 'steeper' the investment demand function, the less sensitive investment is to changes in the real rate of interest, all else constant.
We can say that the downward slope is the consequence of several reasons. For instance, the concept that money, its nominal value, is fixed. However, the real value of money depends on the level of prices. So the demand for money is related to the demand for it. The interest rate falls when the price level falls.
Answer:
the current value fo $1,000 is $1,011.22
Explanation:
The computation of the current value of $1,000 is shown below:
Current value
= Price × (Current CPI ÷ Reference CPI) × 100
= $1,000 × (205.47 ÷ 203.19)
= $1,011.22
We basically applied the above formula so that the current value would come
Hence, the current value fo $1,000 is $1,011.22
Answer:
There will be a difference in the income .
Absorption costing income will be lower as it transfers all the fixed costs to the ending inventory.
Variable costing income will be higher as it does not transfer the fixed costs to the ending inventory.
The difference will be of $ 104000
Explanation:
Increase in units 8000
Variable Fixed
Unit manufacturing costs of the period $24.00 $10.00
Unit operating expenses of the period 8.00 3.00
Total Unit Costs $ 32.00 $ 13.00
The net operating income under variable costing for the year will be $ 13* 8000= $ 104000 Lower than the net operating income under absorption costing. This is because the all fixed costs will be treated as period cost rather than product costs.
In variable costing the ending inventory will be $104000 lower than the ending inventory under absorption costing because the fixed costs will not be allocated to products.
Under variable costing, the units in the ending inventory will be costed at $32 each.Under absorption costing, the units in the ending inventory will be costed at $32+ $ 13= $ 45 each.
Answer:
b) The company will incur a loss
Explanation:
The market rate at the time of issue = 9%, while coupon rate = 8%, it says bonds provide lesser return when compared to the market rate.
At end of year 2 market rate drops to 6% which is lower than the Bond's coupon rate. Which means the bond's providing high return when compared to the market. So, company to retire the bonds need to pay more than the par value.
As company should retire these bonds more than par value, the company incur a loss.
Option 'B is correct
The company incur a loss
