The answer is 2/3
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Answer:
E. Deep venous thrombosis
Step-by-step explanation:
According to a different source, these are the options that come with this question:
A. Depression
B. Smoking history
C. Severe nausea on combined oral contraceptives
D. Lactation history
E. Deep venous thrombosis
This woman would be a good candidate for the progestin-only pill because of her deep venous thrombosis, as contraindications to estrogen include a history of thromboembolic disease. Other contraindications include women who are lactating, women over 35 who smoke or women that have experienced severe nausea when using combined pills.
Formula for amount for compound interest:
Amount, A = P(1 + r/100)^n
Where r is rate, P is principal, and n is the number of years.
P = 2000, r = 5, n = t years.
A = 2000( 1 + 5/100)^t
A = 200(1+0.05)^t
A = 2000(1.05)^t
A(t) = 2000(1.05)^t
Answer:
The graph is stretched vertically by a factor of ½, translated left 5 units, and translated up 3 units.
