When the economy goes into a recession and firms require less labor, managers tend to?

Suppose that, at an official ticket price of $480, there are 6,000 Justin Timberlake fans wanting to attend his concert, but onl

Nonamiya [84]

Answer:

A. The market clearing price of the tickets is more than $480.

Explanation:

Market-clearing price is a level where the quantity demanded of a product matches or the quantity supplied. At this price, A product or service does not experience any surplus or shortages. It is the price where the demand curve and the supply curve intersect. The market-clearing price is the same as the equilibrium price.

As the price of $480, the demand for the show is at 6000, but supply is at 4000. There is a surplus in demand. The price of $480 is attractive to more people than supply can handle. Matching supply and demand would require the price to be set above the $480.

6 0

3 years ago

. A firm begins the year with a Book Value of $10 million. During the year it generates $5 million in net profits. It paid $1 mi

Keith_Richards [23]

Answer:

b) $12 million

Explanation:

The new Book Value of the firm at the bigining of next year is $12 million.

In the calulation of Net Pfofit, Interst on loan has already been deducted, so deducting it from the total calculation will be wrong.

hence, only dividend paid will be removed from the addition of the Book Value anf the Net profit.

Closing balance = Opening Book Value + Net Profit - Dividend Paid

Note - The Net Profit is already ne of interest on loan.

Closing balance = $10 + $5 - $3

Closing balance is $12

3 0

3 years ago

Sales (19,500 units at $30 per unit) $585,000 Variable expenses 409,500 Contribution margin 175,500 Fixed expenses 180,000 Net o

vichka [17]

Answer:

Automated

Sales (19,500 units at $30 per unit) $585,000 $585,000

Variable expenses 409,500 351,000

Contribution margin 175,500 234,000

Fixed expenses 180,000 252,000

Net operating loss $(4,500) $( 18,000)

New Cm ratio= Contribution Margin/ Sales Revenue

= $ 234,000 $ 585,000 = 0.4

Break-even point in dollars= Fixed Costs/ 1- (variable Cost/ Sales)

= 252,000/ 1- (351,000/ 585,000)

= 252,000/ 1-0.6

= 252,000/0.4= $ 630,000

The resulting $ 630,000 is the break even point at which neither a loss nor a profit is incurred.This can be checked as follows.

Sales $ 630,000

Variable Costs ( 60 % $ 630,000) $ 378,000

Contribution Margin $ 252,000

Less Fixed Expense <u>$ 252,000</u>

Profit <u> 0 </u>

Break even point in units = Fixed Costs/ Contribution Margin in units

= $ 252,000/ (30-18)

=$ 252,000/ $ 12= 21,000 units

Two Contribution format Income Statements:

Automated

Sales (26,000 units at $30 per unit) $780,000 $780,000

Variable expenses 546,000 468,000

Contribution margin 234,000 312,000

Fixed expenses 180,000 252,000

Net operating Profit $ 54,000 $ 60,000

Working:

Variable Costs per unit = $ 409500/19500= $ 21

After reduction variable costs = $ 21- $3= $ 18

4 0

3 years ago

You have been working at your job for over a year. your boss starts offering you new assignments with weekly meetings in order t

miss Akunina [59]

I reach my goals im now on a good

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A purchaser paid $403.10 for a TV that cost the seller $290. If the seller's markup was 39% of the $290 cost, then what would be

CaHeK987 [17]

Percent markup based on the selling price: 28.1%

Explanation:

The cost of the TV for the seller was

$c=\$290$

Of this, the markup of this price was 39%. Therefore, the value of the markup (in dollars) with respect to the cost for the seller was

$m=0.39\cdot 290 =\$113.1$

So, this was the markup relative to the cost for the seller.

The price paid by the purchaser instead is

$p=\$403.1$

Therefore, the percent markup based on the selling price (paid by the purchaser) is:

$\frac{m}{p}\cdot 100 = \frac{113.1}{403.1}\cdot 100 =0.281\cdot 100 = 28.1\%$

Learn more about percentages:

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5 0

3 years ago