The probabilities of knocking down zero, one, and two pins are
and
, respectively. The total probability of knocking down at most two is thus
, or
.
24 : 12.5/100 = 24 * 100/12.5 = 192;
Answer:
r >= Q
Step-by-step explanation:
THE LAST ONE
First you need to multiply by a factor that will givr you the same value in one of the x or y value.
(6x-12y=24)1
+(-x-6y=4)-2
6x-12y=24
=2x+12y=-8
8x=16÷8
x=2
now that you have x, substitute x by 2 in one of the eqauations
-2-6y=4
+2. +2
=-6y=6
÷-6. ÷-6
y=-1
Answer:
1
Step-by-step explanation:
<h2>Given, y = b m x m</h2><h2>y' = -b m x (m+1)</h2><h2>At any point (x1,y1)</h2><h2 /><h2>Equation of tangent is given by </h2><h2>y - y1 </h2><h2>------- = -b m x1 -(m+1)</h2><h2>x - x1</h2><h2>Y intercept = - m</h2><h2>X intercept = (m-1) × 1</h2><h2> m </h2><h2>Area bounced = 1 (m - 1)×1</h2><h2> ---- ---------------------- x m</h2><h2> 2 m</h2><h2>For area to be constant, m = 1</h2>
