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garik1379 [7]
3 years ago
5

How does an increase in bad debt affect a sole trader financial statement

Business
1 answer:
Kamila [148]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

It will increase expense, thereby reducing the profit mentioned in the income statement and decrease the current asset (debtor) recorded in the balance sheet.

Explanation:

Bad Debt is an expense that is recorded when it is expected that the customer, who owes a debt to the business, might default in clearing their dues.

As such when the bad debt amount is increased it will result in a rise in expense and therefore the profit, as stated in the profit and loss (income statement) of the sole trader would decrease.

Moreover, it will also decrease the value of trade receivables (current assets) mentioned in the balance sheet. The following entry would be recorded:

Bad Debts (Dr) xxxxx

Trade Receivables (Cr) xxxxxx

Hence, the expenses will increase while the current asset will decrease.

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On October 1, Company B records 1 year of prepaid rent in an income statement account then adjusts for the unexpired prepaid ren
trasher [3.6K]

Answer:

The first journal entry was not the most appropriate, but since the mistake was correctly adjusted at the end of the year, both assets and expenses will be the same whether they did it correctly the first time or they had to adjust a mistake at the end of the year.

E.g. something like this happened

October 1, rent expense for 1 year

Dr Rent expense 12,000

    Cr Cash 12,000

December 31, adjustment to rent expense

Dr Prepaid rent 10,000

    Cr Rent expense 10,000

they should have recorded it as:

October 1, prepaid rent for 1 year

Dr Prepaid rent 12,000

    Cr Cash 12,000

December 31, adjustment to rent expense

Dr Rent expense 2,000

    Cr Prepaid rent 2,000

Whichever way you recorded the transactions, the balances a the end of the year would be:

prepaid rent (asset) $10,000

rent expense (expense) $2,000

6 0
3 years ago
It was 8:00 a.m. on Saturday morning. Liz just learned that her well-meaning cousins were headed over to help her unpack her hou
Ymorist [56]

Answer:

empowered

Explanation:

According to my research on employee roles and responsibilities, I can say that based on the information provided within the question in this situation we can say that the employee was empowered. This can be said because he too the initiative in order fix the problem in a way that would leave the customer happy and wanting to come back again.

I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.

8 0
3 years ago
FDIC is:
seropon [69]

Answer:

c) A government insurance program that will pay back account holders if the bank or lending institution fails

Explanation:

The FDIC is an acronym for Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation. It was founded by Franklin Roosevelt on the 16th of June, 1933.

FDIC is a government insurance program that will pay back account holders if the bank or lending institution fails.

The income generated from the premium payments of insured banks is used to fund or finance the FDIC.

5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
#20 Employers include __________ plan coverage in fringe benefit programs to retain high-quality employees and ensure productivi
harina [27]

Answer:

Group health

Explanation:

  • As a company it's the duty of owner and management to take care of their employees health
  • It's difficult to run individual healt programmes hence companies run group health programs
8 0
2 years ago
Ganado and Equity Risk Premiums. Maria​ Gonzalez, Ganado's Chief Financial​ Officer, estimates the​ risk-free rate to be 3.50 %​
Elza [17]

Answer:

WACC (CAPM) 5.2%

WACC (ICAPM) 5.03%

Explanation:

The weighted average cost of capital is

Ke * E/ E+D + Kd * (1 -t) D / E+D

Ke = Rf + (Rm - Rf) * \beta

Ke (CAPM) = 3.50% + (8% - 3.50%) * 1.12

Ke (CAPM) = 7.532%

Kd (CAPM) = Kd (1-t)

Kd (CAPM) = 7.60 (1-39%)

Kd (CAPM) = 4.636%

WACC (ICAPM) : 7.532 * 20% + 4.636 * 80%

WACC (CAPM) = 5.2164%

Ke (ICAPM) = 3.50% + (8% - 3.50%) * 0.86

Ke (ICAPM) = 6.596%

Kd (ICAPM) = Kd (1-t)

Kd (ICAPM) = 7.60 (1-39%)

Kd (ICAPM) = 4.636%

WACC (ICAPM) : 6.596 * 20% + 4.636 * 80%

WACC (CAPM) = 5.03%

7 0
4 years ago
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