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SashulF [63]
3 years ago
12

PLEASE HELP EXPLAIN IT TO ME HOW TO DO THIS I AM BEGGING

Mathematics
1 answer:
Anarel [89]3 years ago
7 0
1 1/2 -2 1/4 will give you the rule
I it helps
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Alan and Margot each drive from City A to City B, a distance of 147 miles. They take the same route and drive at constant speeds
Westkost [7]

Answer:

Margot gets from A to B faster

Step-by-step explanation:

Alan takes 2 hr and 35 min = 2. 58... hr

Margot takes 147/64 hr = 2.296.. hr

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Projectile motion is a combination of which two types of motion?
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Use the theoretical probability formula to solve the problem. Express the probability as a fraction
serg [7]

Answer:

c. 3 / 13

d. 2 / 13

Step-by-step explanation:

c.

A deck of cards has 52 cards. There are cards of 4 suits- Spades, Hearts, Diamonds and Clubs.

So, there are 52/4= 13 cards of each suit.

Among these 13 cards, there are 3 picture cards or face cards as they are called. These are the Jack, Queen and King cards.

So, the number of total picture cards = 4*3 = 12

the number of cards are 52

theoretical probability formula: P =  favorable events/  possible events

P = 12 / 52

P = 3 / 13

d.

there are four aces and four sevens in the deck

so favorable events = 4 + 4 = 8

possible eventas = 52

P = 8 / 52

P = 2 / 13

4 0
3 years ago
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

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