URGENT!! Really need help on this test

JUANITA WANTS TO PARTICIPATE IN A 20 KILOMETER BICYCLE RACE. SHE IS CONSIDERING TWO TRAINING PROGRAMS BELOW.

liraira [26]

The third day
1 kilo=1000 meter

8 0

3 years ago

A bag of marbles includes only green and red marbles. The results of an experiment are shown in the table below. What is the exp

mixer [17]

Answer:

John I did my phone in a while and my mom did it I was so

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0

2 years ago

in the rhombus shown below AC and BD are 6 and 4in respectively determine the area of the figure in square inches

bulgar [2K]

The area of a rhombus is computed as follows:

A = p*q*1/2

where p and q are the diagonals of the rhombus.

In this case:

A = AC*BD*1/2

A = 6*4*1/2

A = 12 square inches

7 0

7 months ago

PLEASE HELPPP!! fill in the blank with + or - <br> reporting if you post a inappropriate comment.

sammy [17]

Answer:

Top box is +, left box is +, right box is -, bottom box is +

Step-by-step explanation:

Hopefully that makes sense lol

3 0

2 years ago

Explain why each of the following integrals is improper. (a) 4 x x − 3 dx 3 Since the integral has an infinite interval of integ

erma4kov [3.2K]

Answer:

a

Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

b

Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral

c

Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral

d

Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

Step-by-step explanation:

Considering a

$\int\limits^4_3 {\frac{x}{x- 3} } \, dx$

Looking at this we that at x = 3 this integral will be infinitely discontinuous

Considering b

$\int\limits^{\infty}_0 {\frac{1}{1 + x^3} } \, dx$

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between $0 \ and \ \infty$ which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is a Type 1 improper integral

Considering c

$\int\limits^{\infty}_{- \infty} {x^2 e^{-x^2}} \, dx$

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between $-\infty \ and \ \infty$ which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is a Type 1 improper integral

Considering d

$\int\limits^{\frac{\pi}{4} }_0 {cot (x)} \, dx$

Looking at the integral we see that at x = 0 cot (0) will be infinity hence the integral has an infinite discontinuity , so it is a Type 2 improper integral

7 0

2 years ago