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ira [324]
3 years ago
10

Q 10.7: Melbee Farms is considering purchasing a new combine that would help them finish their harvesting faster, thus allowing

them to pick up extra revenue by doing custom combining for other farmers. The combine and headers cost $487,000. They expect to have net cash flows of $157,000 in year 1, $182,000 in year 2, $202,000 in year 3, and $213,000 in year 4. If they discount the cash flows by 7%, what is the discounted payback period for the combine
Business
1 answer:
LUCKY_DIMON [66]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Discounted payback period= 3 years 1 month

Explanation:

The discounted payback period is the estimated length of time in years it takes the present value of net cash inflow from a project to equate the net cash the initial cost  

To work out the discounted payback period, we will compute present value of the cash inflow and then determine how long it will take for the sum to be equal to the initial cost. This is done as follows:

Year     Cash flow     DF        Present value  

0           487,000 × 1          = (487,000)

1          157,000 × 1.07^(-1) = 146,729.0

2         182,000 × 1.07^(-2) = 158965.8

  3         202,000 × 1.07^(-3) = 164,892.2

4         213,000  × 1.07^(-4) =162,496.7

Total PV for 2 years = 146729 +158965+164892= 470587.0

Balance of cash flow remaining to equal  =  487,000-470587 = 16413.0

 Discounted payback period = 3 years + 16413.0 /162,496.7 × 12 months

= 3year , 1.2months

Discounted payback period= 3 years 1 month

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Answer:

b. 116

Explanation:

The calculation of Consumer Price Index is shown below:-

CPI = ((Base year basket quantities × current year price) ÷ (Base year basket quantities × Base year prices)) × 100

= ((50 × $1.50) + (100 × $1.10)) ÷ ((50 × $1.20) + (100 × $1.00)) × 100

= (185 ÷ 160) × 100

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0r 116

So, for computing the consumer price index for 2018 we simply applied the above formula.

3 0
3 years ago
MILLS ALLOCATES MANUFACTURING OVERHEAD TO PRODUCTION BASED ON STANDARD DIRECT LABOR HOURS. MILLS REPORTED THE FOLLOWING ACTUAL R
tekilochka [14]

Answer:

1. Compute the variable overhead cost and efficiency variances and fixed overhead cost and volume variances.

  • variable overhead cost variance = $1,000 unfavorable
  • variable efficiency variance = -$1,200 favorable
  • fixed overhead costs = $1,500 unfavorable
  • fixed overhead volume variance = -$100 favorable

2. EXPLAIN (as best you can) why the variances are favorable or unfavorable. Based on cost and efficiency budget standards.

  • variable overhead cost variance is unfavorable because actual variable overhead costs per unit are higher than budgeted.
  • variable efficiency variance is favorable because the company used less direct labor hours than budgeted to produce a higher amount of units (1,600 vs. 2,000).
  • fixed overhead costs are unfavorable because total fixed overhead costs were much higher than budgeted, but most of this variance can be explained by higher output.
  • fixed overhead volume variance are favorable because a higher volume was produced using less hours than budgeted.

Explanation:

Static budget variable overhead $1,200

Actual variable overhead $4,000

Static budget fixed overhead $1,600

Actual fixed overhead $3,100

Static budget direct labor hours 800 hours

Actual direct labor hours 1,600

Static budget number of units 400 units

Actual units produced 1,000

Standard direct labor hours 2 hours per unit

Actual direct labor hours 1.6 per unit

standard variable rate = $1,200 / 400 units = $3 per unit

actual variable rate = $4,000 / 1,000 units = $4 per unit

standard fixed rate = $1,600 / 800 hours = $2 per hour

actual fixed rate = $3,100 / 1,600 hours = $1.9375 per hour

variable overhead cost variance = actual costs - (standard rate x actual units) = $4,000 - ($3 x 1,000) = $1,000 unfavorable

variable efficiency variance = (actual hours x standard rate) - (standard hours x standard rate) = (1,600 × $3) − (2,000 x $3) = $4,800 - $6,000 = -$1,200 favorable

fixed overhead costs = actual overhead costs - budgeted overhead costs = $3,100 - $1,600 = $1,500 unfavorable

fixed overhead volume variance = (actual fixed rate x actual hours) - (standard rate x actual hours) = ($1.9375 x 1,600) - ($ x 1,600) = $3,100 - $3,200 = -$100 favorable

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3 years ago
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irinina [24]

Answer: Conglomerate structure

                           

Explanation: In simple words, conglomerate structure refers to the structure under which many entities operate in different industries under a single corporation. In other words, it is a different name for parent subsidiary relationship.

In the given case, Lito group owns different firms in different industries. Hence from the above we can conclude that the group uses conglomerate structure.

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Answer:

fixed-position

Explanation:

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