Answer:
5 hours cuz 75 divided by 15 is 5 or 15 x 5 is 75
Considering the Central Limit Theorem, we have that:
a) The probability cannot be calculated, as the underlying distribution is not normal and the sample size is less than 30.
b) The probability can be calculated, as the sample size is greater than 30.
<h3>What does the Central Limit Theorem state?</h3>
It states that the sampling distribution of sample means of size n is approximately normal has standard deviation 
, as long as the underlying distribution is normal or the sample size is greater than 30.
In this problem, the underlying distribution is skewed right, that is, not normal, hence:
- For item a, the probability cannot be calculated, as the underlying distribution is not normal and the sample size is less than 30.
- For item b, the probability can be calculated, as the sample size is greater than 30.
More can be learned about the Central Limit Theorem at brainly.com/question/16695444
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Well, estimate means to get like a general idea, or "in the ball park".
The factors include; the trip which is $26, and the ammount of students in the class, which is 22.
In order to estimate, you need to round.
$26 rounded becomes $30.
22 rounded becomes 20.
So now that we have the rounded numbers, we solve the problem. In order to find the total cost for all the students, we multiply the amount of students, by the ammount of money it costs per student.
The estimated version of this is: 20x30=600
This means that the estimated answer is $600 total.
Now do the same thing with the actual numbers.
22x26=572.
This means that the actual answer is $572.
The roumded total
Answer is $600.
You can say it is better use the actual numbers, and not estimate, because it is the actual answer.
I hope this helps you, im sorry for the long answer :)
No, because now we can consider "The Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic", this Theorem states; "that every integer greater than 1 either is prime itself or is the product of prime numbers, and that, although the order of the primes in the second case is arbitrary, the primes themselves are not"
<span>Therefore there is only one prime factorization of a composite number.
</span>It is actually not possible to not have any prime numbers, because even prime numbers are composed by only one prime number, so composite numbers have more them one prime number in them.
