Answer:
I'm going to be customizing didlos
Explanation:
Answer:
A. D1 = 1.50*1.06 = 1.59
D2 = 1.59*1.06 = 1.69
D3 = 1.69*1.06 = 1.79
B. PV of D1=(1.50*1.06)/1.13^1=1.41
PV of D2=(1.50*1.06^2)/1.13^2=1.32
PV of D3=(1.50*1.06^3)/1.13^3=1.24
PV of all dividend = (1.50*1.06)/1.13^1 + (1.5*1.06^2)/1.13^2 + (1.5*1.06^3)/1.13^3
PV of all dividend = 1.59/1.13 + 1.6854/1.2769 + 1.786524/1.442897
PV of all dividend = 1.407079646 + 1.319915 + 1.238150748
PV of all dividend = 3.965145814288893
PV of all dividend = 3.97
C. PV = 27.05/(1+13%)^3
PV = 27.05/(1.13)^3
PV = 27.05/1.442897
PV = 18.74701
PV = 18.75
D. The most you should pay for it
:
= (1.50*1.06)/1.13^1+(1.5*1.06^2)/1.13^2+(1.5*1.06^3)/1.13^3+27.05/1.13^3
=22.71
E. Value = (1.50*1.06)/(13%-6%)
Value = 1.59 / 7%
Value = 1.59 / 0.07
Value = 22.714286
Value =22.71
F. No, the value is not dependent on the holding period, you can see from above that the value of infinite time period estimated in E equals to the value calculated when there was 3 years holding period.
Answer:
$103,000
Explanation:
W-2 taxable income = gross salary - employee contributions to 401-K - flexible spending account savings - health insurance paid by employee
W-2 taxable income = $120,000 - $12,000 - $2,000 - $3,000 = $103,000
Form W-2 records all the employee's taxable income including wages, salary, tips, bonuses, and other taxable compensation. It also includes all the deductibles that employees can make including 401-K contributions, health premiums and flexible spending accounts.
In business, people often make choices. Opportunity Cost is the value of what must be foregone in order to undertake an activity.
<h3>
What is opportunity cost?</h3>
- The economists often refer to this type of cost as the amount or the value of the next highly rated alternative use of one's money or resource.
An example is when a person spend their time and money going to a shop, one cannot spend that time at cooking, and you even did not spend the money on other things.
Learn more about Opportunity Cost from
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