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mamaluj [8]
3 years ago
15

Which is the steepest and why? a) slope=5/3 b) slope= -3/2 c) slope= 0

Mathematics
1 answer:
77julia77 [94]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

A is the steepest Because

A = 1.66666666667

B=-1.5

C= is just 0

Step-by-step explanation:

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How many pennies could you have if: When you Break de Pennies into groups of 2, you have 1 penny left over, AND when you break t
MariettaO [177]

Answer:

The answer is 31 pennies

Step-by-step explanation:

we have to find a number that gives a remainder of 1 when divided by both 2, 3 and 5.

The easiest way to do this is to list the factors of 5, add 1 to it, and test them until we find the one with a remainder of 1 by all three divisors. This is done as follows:

1) factor: 5 (+1) = 6

6 ÷ 2 = 3 remainder 0

6 ÷ 3 = 2 remainder 0

since there is a remainder of 0, when divided by 3, 6 is wrong

2) factor; 10 (+1) = 11

11 ÷ 3 = 3 remainder 2 ( 11 is not the correct answer

3) factor : 15 (+1) = 16

16 ÷ 2 = 8 remainder 0 ( 16 is  not the correct answer

4) factor : 20(+1) = 21

21 ÷ 3 = 7 remainder 0 ( 21 is wrong)

5) factor : 25(+1) = 26

26 ÷ 2 = 13 remainder 0 ( 26 is wrong)

6) factor : 30(+1) = 31

31 ÷ 2 = 15 Remainder 1

31 ÷ 3 = 10 Remainder 1

31 ÷ 5 = 6 Remainder 1

since all three divisors give a remainder of 1, the correct answer is 31

Therefore you have 31 pwnnies

6 0
3 years ago
X over 3 equals 2 over 5
natali 33 [55]

Answer:

so

x = 6 over 5

Step-by-step explanation:

mark me brainliest if u have any doubt ask me

4 0
3 years ago
How does adding the log together automatically mean that it is a factorial?
andreyandreev [35.5K]

Answer: The answer is given below.

Step-by-step explanation:  We are given an equality involving logarithm and we are to show the implication of L.H.S. to R.H.S.

We will be using the following two properties of logarithm:

(i)~\log_ba=\dfrac{1}{\log_ab},\\\\\\(ii)~log_ab+\log_ac=\log_a(bc).

The proof is as follows:

L.H.S.\\\\\\=\dfrac{1}{\log_2N}+\dfrac{1}{\log_3N}+\dfrac{1}{\log_4N}+\cdots+\dfrac{1}{\log_{100}N}\\\\\\=\log_N2+\logN3+\log_N4+\cdots+\log_N100\\\\=\log_N\{2.3.4...100\}\\\\=\log_N\{1.2.3.4...100\}\\\\=\log_N{100!}\\\\=\dfrac{1}{\log_{100!}N}\\\\=R.H.S.

Hence proved.

6 0
3 years ago
Speed=60 km/h time= 2 hours 20 minutes, what is the distance?
daser333 [38]

Answer:

26km

Step-by-step explanation:

d=speed × time

d=60×2.33

d= 140km

8 0
3 years ago
Lucia has 3.5 hours left in her workday as a car mechanic. Lucia needs 1/2 of an hour to complete one oil change.
MatroZZZ [7]

Answer: So Lucía has 3.5 hours left, and need 1/2 of an hour (or 0.5 hours) to do one oil change.

a) If you divide the total time she has by the time she needs for each oil change, then you got the total number of oil changes that she can do in that time; this is:

3.5/0.5 = 7

So she can do 7 oil changes in 3.5 hours.

b) If she can complete two car inspections in the same amount of time it takes her to complete one oil change, then she can do two car inspections in 0.5 hours.

2*car inspections = 0.5 hours

car inspection = (0.5/2) hours

then one car inspection will take 0.5/2 = 0.25 hours.

c) Two ways to solve this:

1) Do the same that we did in a), this is: 3.5/0.25 = 14

she can do 14 car inspections.

2) If in 3.5 hours, she can do 7 oil changes, and in the time she does an oil change, she can do two car inspections, then in 3.5 hours she can do 7*2 car inspections, and 7*2 = 14

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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