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blagie [28]
3 years ago
10

Winston Clinic is evaluating a project that costs $61,500 and has expected net cash inflows of $15,000 per year for eight years.

The first inflow occurs one year after the cost outflow, and the project has a cost of capital of 11 percent. a. What is the project's payback? b. What is the project’s NPV? It’s IRR? It’s MIRR?
Business
1 answer:
iragen [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Payback Period = 4 Years

Net Present value = $15692

Internal Rate of Return = 17.82%

Modified Internal Rate of Return = 14.20%

Explanation:

Payback Period = (Initial Investment / Net Cash inflows)

Payback Period = $61500/15000 = 4 Years

Net Present value using PVIF table value at 11% over the period and discount them given cash flows gives us discounted cash flows.

Year  CF       PVIF 11%,n   Discounted CF

0 -61500  1.000   (61,500)

1 15000  0.901   13,514  

2 15000  0.812   12,174  

3 15000  0.731   10,968  

4 15000  0.659   9,881  

5 15000  0.593   8,902  

6 15000  0.535   8,020  

7 15000  0.482   7,225  

8 15000  0.434   6,509  

Summing up the discounted Cash flows gives us the Net Present value of $15692

Internal Rate of Return:

Using Excel Function IRR @ 17.82% applying it on cash flows gives the rate where Present value of Cash flows is Zero.

Modified Internal Rate of Return:

Modified internal rate of return is at the level of 14.20% as it lower than IRR because it assume positive cash flows invested at cost of capital.  

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The management of Retz Corporation is considering the purchase of a new machine costing $500,000. The company's desired rate of
kirill [66]

Answer:

The present value index is 0.91 which is less than 1. So, the investment should not be accepted.

Explanation:

Present Value Index : It shows the ratio between the sum of present value of all years cash inflows after applying the discount rate and initial investment.

In mathematically,

Present value index = Sum of present value of all years cash flows with discount rate ÷ Initial Investment

where,

Present value = Net cash flow × Discount rate

So,

Year 1 = $180,000 × 0.909 = $163,620

Year 2 = $120,000 × 0.826 = $99,120

Year 3 = $100,000 × 0.751 = $75,100

Year 4 = $90,000 × 0.683 = $61,470

Year 5 = $90,000 × 0.621 = $55,890

Now, Sum all the yearly cash inflows which equals to

= $163,620 + $99,120 + $75,100 + $61,470 + $55,890

= $455,200

So, the present value index = $455,200 ÷ $500,000 = 0.91

Hence, the present value index is 0.91 which is less than 1. So, the investment should not be accepted.

5 0
3 years ago
applied vs. actual manufacturing overhead davis manufacturing corporation applies manufacturing overhead on the basis of 150% of
Mashcka [7]

Answer:

Subapplication of    22,500

journal entry:

WIP                   4,500 debit

finished goods 2,250 debit

COGS               15,750 debit

    factory overhead               22,500 credit

Explanation:

Direct Labor cost during the year:

60,000 + 30,000 + 210,000 = 300,000 direct labor

<u></u>

<u>Applied overhead:</u>

cost driver x predetermined rate

300,000 x 150% = 450,000

Actual overhead:   472,500

Subapplication of    22,500

as this is a significant amount we must adjust the WIP  inventory, cost of goods sold and fnished goods inventory

to know the adjustment on each account we calcualte each account percentage:

300,000   -->   22,500

60,000 --> 60,000/300,000 x 22,500 = 4,500 endingWIP

30,000 --> 30,000/300,000 x 22,500  = 2,250 finished goods

210,000--> 210,000/300,000 x 22,500 = 15,750 COGS

we do the adjuting entry to increase overhead and transfer into each concept

8 0
3 years ago
Fernandez Company had an accounts receivable balance of​ $150,000 on December​ 31, Year 2 and​ $175,000 on December​ 31, Year 3.
Mars2501 [29]

Answer:

The amount collected from customers on accounts receivable during year 3 is $535,000.

Explanation:

Cash received from accounts receivable = Opening balance of AR + Credit Sales - Bad debts written off - Closing balance of AR.

  • The opening balance for year 3 account receivables was 150000.
  • Credit Sales = 600000
  • Bad debts = 40000
  • Closing Balance = 175000

We can solve this question either by making a T account for accounts receivable or using the equation given above.

Cash = 150000 + 600000 - 40000 - 175000 = $535000

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How would you advise Johnson &amp; Johnson on addressing the claim that their talcum powder (baby powder) causes ovarian cancer?
victus00 [196]

Answer:

An example email to the company:

Dear Sirs:

I have recently been in contact with some sources that have told me that you baby Powder may be causing ovarian cancer. I would respectfully ask you to look into this issue, as your product may be harming young children.

Thank you for your time,

_Your name herE_

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
MC Qu. 119 Alexis Co. reported the following information... Alexis Co. reported the following information for May: Part A Units
Brums [2.3K]

Answer:

the contribution margin per unit for part A is  $1,479,000

Explanation:

The computation of the contribution margin for part A is shown below:

Contribution margin per unit is

= $950 - $600 - $95

= $255

Now for contribution margin per unit for part A is

= 5,800 units × $255

= $1,479,000

Hence, the contribution margin per unit for part A is  $1,479,000

5 0
2 years ago
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