Answer:
Chen should buy the new machine since it produces a positive NPV of $1,294
Explanation:
Summary of the Project Cash Flows is as follows :
Year 0 = ($120,000)
Year 1 to Year 10 = $18,900
The Project cost of capital = 9%
Calculation of the Project`s NPV :
<em>NPV can be calculated from this summary using a financial calculator as :</em>
<em>CF0 = ($120,000)</em>
<em>CF1 = $18,900</em>
<em>Nj = 10</em>
<em>i = 9 %</em>
<em>NPV = ? </em>
<em>NPV = $1,293.73 or $1,294</em>
The Project is accepted only if it has a Positive NPV
Conclusion,
Chen should buy the new machine since it produces a positive NPV of $1,294.
Answer:
The Correlation analysis “R” is measured to compute the strength of relationship among variables. Moreover, the value of correlation is calculated among -1 to +1. Which implies that if the computed value is near to -1 then there will be strong but negative relation and if near to +1 then it is strong but relation among the variable. However zero is consider as neutral point.
A. The computed value of correlation is - 0.772. The value identifies that that there is a strong but negative association among the variables (GDP and infant mortality rate).
B. The correlation analysis cannot computed among the variables continent and GDP because "continent" is a categorical variable not quantitative.
C. The computed value of correlation is higher than 1. Thus, the statement implies that there is a very strong relationship among life expectancy and GDP which is incorrect. As the association cannot be higher than 1.
D. There is a strong relationship among literacy rate and GDP as the relationship is nearer to 1. Furthermore, the association among literacy rate and GDP doesn’t suggest the causation.
E. The computed correlation among the variables is 0.90. Which indicated that the variables goes up. That is, when the GDP goes down the import is also decrease and when GDP increases the import increases Thus, the there is a positive correlation.
Answer:
a. the portion of its marginal cost curve that lies above the AVC
Explanation:
In short run, a perfectly competitive produces as long as its price is above its AVC, so revenues can cover total variable cost. If price is below AVC, the firm has to shut down. Since such a firm maximizes profit by equating Price with MC, this condition means that firm's supply curve is its MC curve lying above the (minimum point of) AVC curve.
If his starting balance is the $225.91
then his balance would be
-131.71
Answer:
Explanation:
Net sales - $894,250
Cost of Goods - $ 616850
Average account receivable - $40,650
Account receivable at year end - $28200
Average inventory - $182000
Inventory at year end - $158,000
Inventory turn over
Cost of Goods sold / Average inventory for the period
616850/182000= 3.40 times
No of days sales in inventory = Ending inventory / Cost of Goods sold *365
158000/616850*365 = 93.5 days
Account receivable turnover = net credit sale / average receivable
894250/40650=21.9
No of days sales in account receivable -
Receivable at year end/total credit sales*365
28200/894250*365= 11.5 days
