Answer:
1/12 or 0.0833...
Step-by-step explanation:
There are 36 different possible outcomes for rolling the number cubes. To get a sum of 4 you would need to roll a 1 and 3 (2 possibilities, each cube could roll a 1 or a 3) or a 2 and a 2 (1 possibility, each has to roll the same number). Since there is no 0 or negative numbers, these are your only possibilities. 3 out of 36 possibilities is also equivalent to a 1/12 chance.
Hope this helps
Answer:
-1
Step-by-step explanation:
We need to find the value of tan² 70° -sec² 70°.
We know that,
...(1)
We can write the given expression as :
tan² 70° -sec² 70° = -(-tan² 70° +sec² 70°)
=-(sec² 70°-tan² 70°)
Using identity (1)
=-(1)
= -1
Hence, the value of the given expression is -1.
Proof by induction
Base case:
n=1: 1*2*3=6 is obviously divisible by six.
Assumption: For every n>1 n(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6.
For n+1:
(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)=
(n(n+1)(n+2)+3(n+1)(n+2))
We have assumed that n(n+1)(n+2) is divisble by 6.
We now only need to prove that 3(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6.
If 3(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6, then (n+1)(n+2) must be divisible by 2.
The "cool" part about this proof.
Since n is a natural number greater than 1 we can say the following:
If n is an odd number, then n+1 is even, then n+1 is divisible by 2 thus (n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 2,so we have proved what we wanted.
If n is an even number" then n+2 is even, then n+1 is divisible by 2 thus (n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 2,so we have proved what we wanted.
Therefore by using the method of mathematical induction we proved that for every natural number n, n(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6. QED.
Yes it is indeed correct,
B. 7.47 is the correct answer!
Brainliest pls! thx! :)
