Answer:
101.12 million
Explanation:
<em>The present value of a future cash flow is the amount that can be invested today at a particular rate for a certain number of years to have the future cash flow </em>
The present value of the liability
= FV × (1+r)^(-n)
= 800 × (1.09)^(-24)
= 101.12 million
The present value of this liability= 101.12 million
Answer:
The answer is option (c)$89,301
Explanation:
Solution
Given that:
Inflation rate = 2%
The expected value of an investment = 82,500
Now,
nominal terminal value of the investment at the end of year 4.
Thus,
The nominal terminal value rate at the end of year four is given as follows:
= 82, 500 * (1 +2%) ^4
=$89300. 65
= $89,301
Answer:
¥114.96/€
Explanation:
An intermarket arbitrage opportunity is the act of exploiting an arbitrage opportunity resulting from a pricing discrepancy among three different currencies in the foreign exchange market. Trading in foreign exchange takes place worldwide, the major currency trading centers are located in London, New York, and Tokyo.
In the given question, if you reverse all three exchange rates by calculating 1/rate (change yendollar into dollaryen and so forth), the choice that represents the required opportunity is ¥114.96/€
Took me a bit to understand what this is. I have no business sense at all.
Expected Rate of Return = 30%*5% + 9%*75% - 33% * (100 - 75 -5)%
Expected Rate of Return = 0.015 + 0.0675 - 33%*20%
Expected Rate of Return = 0.015 + 0.0675 - 0.066
Expected Rate of Return = 0.0165
This then is expressed as a %
0.0165 = 1.65 % Sounds like you are buying a US short term treasury.
If anyone else answers, take their answer.
Answer: C. 17.5%
Explanation:
The Return on Equity can be calculated by the formula;
ROE = Growth rate / (1 - dividend payout ratio)
25% = Growth rate / ( 1 - 30%)
Growth rate = 25% * 70%
Growth rate = 17.5%
