Answer:
(4,-1)
x=4
y=-1
Step-by-step explanation:
there are 4 tens in a deck so probability of picking a ten is 4/52 reduced to 1/13
there are 13 clubs in a deck, probability for that is 13/52 reduced to 1/4
probability for both is 1/13 x 1/4 = 1/52
Based on the information given, the simple interest rate that will be earned will be 13.6%.
- Principal = $5250
- Simple Interest = $6500- $5250 = $1250
- Time = 21 months = 1.75 years.
Simple Interest = PRT / 100
1250 = (5250 × 1.75 × R) / 100
Cross multiply
125000 = 9187.5R
R = 125000 / 9187.5
R = 13.6%
Read more on simple interest on:
brainly.com/question/24429956
Answer:
V = (About) 22.2, Graph = First graph/Graph in the attachment
Step-by-step explanation:
Remember that in all these cases, we have a specified method to use, the washer method, disk method, and the cylindrical shell method. Keep in mind that the washer and disk method are one in the same, but I feel that the disk method is better as it avoids splitting the integral into two, and rewriting the curves. Here we will go with the disk method.
![\mathrm{V\:=\:\pi \int _a^b\left(r\right)^2dy\:},\\\mathrm{V\:=\:\int _1^3\:\pi \left[\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2-1\right]dy}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cmathrm%7BV%5C%3A%3D%5C%3A%5Cpi%20%5Cint%20_a%5Eb%5Cleft%28r%5Cright%29%5E2dy%5C%3A%7D%2C%5C%5C%5Cmathrm%7BV%5C%3A%3D%5C%3A%5Cint%20_1%5E3%5C%3A%5Cpi%20%5Cleft%5B%5Cleft%281%2B%5Cfrac%7B2%7D%7By%7D%5Cright%29%5E2-1%5Cright%5Ddy%7D)
The plus 1 in '1 + 2/x' is shifting this graph up from where it is rotating, but the negative 1 is subtracting the area between the y-axis and the shaded region, so that when it's flipped around, it becomes a washer.
![V\:=\:\int _1^3\:\pi \left[\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2-1\right]dy,\\\\\mathrm{Take\:the\:constant\:out}:\quad \int a\cdot f\left(x\right)dx=a\cdot \int f\left(x\right)dx\\=\pi \cdot \int _1^3\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2-1dy\\\\\mathrm{Apply\:the\:Sum\:Rule}:\quad \int f\left(x\right)\pm g\left(x\right)dx=\int f\left(x\right)dx\pm \int g\left(x\right)dx\\= \pi \left(\int _1^3\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2dy-\int _1^31dy\right)\\\\](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=V%5C%3A%3D%5C%3A%5Cint%20_1%5E3%5C%3A%5Cpi%20%5Cleft%5B%5Cleft%281%2B%5Cfrac%7B2%7D%7By%7D%5Cright%29%5E2-1%5Cright%5Ddy%2C%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Cmathrm%7BTake%5C%3Athe%5C%3Aconstant%5C%3Aout%7D%3A%5Cquad%20%5Cint%20a%5Ccdot%20f%5Cleft%28x%5Cright%29dx%3Da%5Ccdot%20%5Cint%20f%5Cleft%28x%5Cright%29dx%5C%5C%3D%5Cpi%20%5Ccdot%20%5Cint%20_1%5E3%5Cleft%281%2B%5Cfrac%7B2%7D%7By%7D%5Cright%29%5E2-1dy%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Cmathrm%7BApply%5C%3Athe%5C%3ASum%5C%3ARule%7D%3A%5Cquad%20%5Cint%20f%5Cleft%28x%5Cright%29%5Cpm%20g%5Cleft%28x%5Cright%29dx%3D%5Cint%20f%5Cleft%28x%5Cright%29dx%5Cpm%20%5Cint%20g%5Cleft%28x%5Cright%29dx%5C%5C%3D%20%5Cpi%20%5Cleft%28%5Cint%20_1%5E3%5Cleft%281%2B%5Cfrac%7B2%7D%7By%7D%5Cright%29%5E2dy-%5Cint%20_1%5E31dy%5Cright%29%5C%5C%5C%5C)

Our exact solution will be V = π(4In(3) + 8/3). In decimal form it will be about 22.2 however. Try both solution if you like, but it would be better to use 22.2. Your graph will just be a plot under the curve y = 2/x, the first graph.
Answer:
This is your answer <( ̄︶ ̄)↗
Step-by-step explanation:
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