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Naily [24]
3 years ago
14

A company sold equipment for $100,000; the equipment had cost $300,000 and had accumulated depreciation of $180,000. The company

’s journal entry to record the sale of the equipment would include a
Business
1 answer:
antiseptic1488 [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Debit to loss on sale of equipment of $20,000

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Selling cost of the equipment = $100,000

Cost of the equipment = $300,000

Accumulated depreciation of the equipment = $180,000

Now,

The book value of the equipment

= Cost of the equipment - Accumulated depreciation

= $300,000 - $180,000

= $120,000

Therefore,

Proceeds for selling

= Selling cost of the equipment - Book value of the equipment

= $100,000 - $120,000

= - $20,000

Here, the negative sign depicts a loss

Hence,

The company’s journal entry to record the sale of the equipment would include a Debit to loss on sale of equipment of $20,000

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and
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That leave China as the correct answer
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Examine the equal opportunity laws of another country, not the United States. Are the laws in other countries as much a concern
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Answer:

The equal opportunity laws of another country, not the United States is discussed below in details.

Explanation:

An equal opportunity system is a certificate that declares what measures a company takes to eliminate and stop discrimination in the workplace.

The United Kingdom employment equality law is an organization of law that legislates against prejudice-based activities in the workplace.

The prime legislation is the Equality Act 2010, which condemns discrimination in passage to education, government services, private services, and goods, or assumptions in addition to employment.

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Where can you find an image database of free and simple graphics in many
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A company is selling bonds with a face value of $1,000 to raise money for a plant expansion. The bonds pay a coupon rate of 4% p
Ksivusya [100]

Answer:

10.26%

Explanation:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-

Net sales = $760

Face value of bonds = $1,000

Coupon rate = 4% = $1,000 × 4 ÷ 100

= 40

N = Number of Years = 5 annually = semiannually = 5 × 2

= 10 years

We assume, interest rate = 10% = 0.10

P = Coupon Rate ÷ 2 × (PVIFA,Interest Rate ÷ 2%,No. of Years) + Future Value(PVIF,Interest Rate ÷ 2%, No. of Years)

=$40 ÷ 2 × [1 - 1 ÷ (1 + Interest Rate)N] ÷ Interest Rate + Future Value[1 ÷ (1 + Interest Rate) × N]

=$40 ÷ 2 × [1-1 ÷ (1 + 0.10 ÷ 2)^10] ÷ 0.05 + $1,000 × [1 ÷ (1 + 0.10 ÷ 2)^10]

=$20 × [1 - 1 ÷ (1.05)^10] ÷ 0.05 + $1,000 × [1 ÷ (1.05)^10]

=$20 × [1 -1 ÷ 1.6288946] ÷ 0.05 + $1,000 × [1 ÷ 1.6288946]

= 420 × 7.72173 + $1,000 × 0.613913

= $154.4346 + $613.913

= $768.3476

= $768.35

But the given value is 760, so we assume interest rate = 11%

=$40 ÷ 2 × [1-1 ÷ (1 + Interest Rate)^N] ÷ Interest Rate + Future Value[1 ÷ (1 + Interest Rate)^N]

= $40 ÷ 2 × [1 - 1 ÷(1 + 0.11 ÷ 2)^10] ÷ 0.055 + $1,000 × [1 ÷ (1 + 0.11 ÷ 2)^10]

= $20 × [1 - 1 ÷ (1.055)^10] ÷ 0.055 + $1,000 × [1 ÷ (1.055)^10]

= $20 × [1 - 1 ÷ 1.70814446] ÷ 0.055 + $1000 × [1 ÷ 1.70814446]

= $20 × 7.5376255 + $1,000 × 0.5854306

= $150.75 + $585.43

= $736.18

At the Interest rate of 10% the price is more than $760 and at the Interest rate of 1% the price is less than $760. So the required rate lies in between 10% to 11%.

So required rate  

Yield To Maturity = Lower Interest Rate + (Difference Between Interest Rate) × Higher Price - Received Price ÷ Higher Price - Lower Price

= 1 0+( 11 - 10) × $768.35 - $760 ÷ $768.35 - $736.18

= 10 + 1 × $8.35 ÷ $32.17

= 10 + 0.26

= 10.26%

7 0
3 years ago
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photoshop1234 [79]

Answer: Place.

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