I want you to imagine as you read this or you can draw through the help of my explanation and see yourself:
1↪Draw triangle ABC where BC>AC
2↪D is any point on AC such that CD=CB
3↪Roughly drawing , you can assume CD=CB and and join BD
4↪SO triangle ABC which is a big triangle is divided into Triangles ABD and BDC
5↪See in triangle BDC ,CD=CB so, base angles of isosceles triangle are equal:
<CDB=<CBD = x (assume) which means x is acute angle since CDB and CBD are are in same triangle with same measure and there can't be any two obtuse angle in any traingle. So x must be acute.
6↪Now see in traingle ABD,
<ADB=180-<CDB=180-x=obtuse angle
...check yourself ...just subtract any acute angle from 180 you will get only obtuse angle (ie angle greater than 90)
That means in triangle ABD , one angle ADB is obtuse which means remaining <ABD and < BAD are acute. [PROVED]
❇Main Concept Used Here:
↪In any triangle there can be maximum of one obtuse angle...so remaining two must be acute angle otherwise interior angles sum can't be equal to 180.
Answer:
14.3%
Step-by-step explanation:
1/7=0.142857142857
round that to the nearest tenth and that is 0.143
make it a percentage and it is 14.3%
I had three blocks of chocolate. If I had to divide them by 1/10, how much would I have?
The hypotenuse is always the longest side and it is the side that is opposite the right angle.
