Answer:
future worth:
project A 11,615.26
project B 12,139.18
It should choose project B as their future value is greater
IRR of project A: 13.54%
We should remember that the IRR is the rate at which the net value is zero thus, equals the inflow with the cash outlay
It is calculate with excel or financial calculator due to the complex of the formula.
Explanation:
Project A
We calculate the future value of the cash flow per year and cost as we are asked for future value. The salvage value is already at the end of the project life so we don't adjust it.
Revenues future value
C 15,000
time 8
rate 0.12
FV $184,495.3970
Expenses future value
C 3,000
time 10
rate 0.12
FV $52,646.2052
Cost future value
Principal 40,000.00
time 10.00
rate 0.12000
Amount 124,233.93
Net future worth:
-124,233.93 cost - 52,646.21 expenses + 184,495.40 revenues + 4,000 salvage value
future worth 11,615.26
Project B
cost:
Principal 60,000.00
time 10.00
rate 0.12000
Amount 186,350.89
expenses 52,646.21 (same as previous)
revenues
C 24,000
time 7
rate 0.12
FV $242,136.2815
TOTAL
242,136.28 + 9,000 - 52,646.21 - 186,350.89 = 12,139.18
Internal rate of return of project A
we write the time and cash flow for each period.
Time Cash flow
0 -40,000
1 -3,000
2 -3,000
3 12,000
4 12,000
5 12,000
6 12,000
7 12,000
8 12,000
9 12,000
10 16,000
IRR 13.54%
Then we write on excel the function =IRR(select the cashflow)
and we got the IRR of the project
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Answer:
Expected return on equity is 11.33%
Explanation:
Using Weighted Average Cost Capital without tax formula, overall rate of return is given by the formula:
WACC=(Ke*E/V)+(Kd*D/V)
Kd is the cost of debt at 6%
Ke is the cost of equity at 12%
D/E=1/2 which means debt is 1 and equity is 2
D/V=debt/debt+equity=1/1+2=1/3
E/V=equity/debt+equity=2/1+2=2/3
WACC=(12%*2/3)+(6%*1/3)
WACC=10%
If the firm reduces debt-equity ratio to 1/3,1 is for debt 3 is for equity
D/V=debt/debt+equity=1/1+3=1/4
E/V=equity/debt+equity=3/1+3=3/4
WACC=10%
10%=(Ke*3/4)+(6%*1/4)
10%=(Ke*3/4)+1.5%
10%-1.5%=Ke*3/4
8.5%=Ke*3/4
8.5%=3Ke/4
8.5%*4=3 Ke
34%=3 Ke
Ke=34%/3
Ke=11.33%
Answer:
6.1 y
Explanation:
Diamond Company
New equipment÷(Annual net income +Depreciation expense)
New equipment$1,400,000
Annual net income $90,000
Depreciation expense $140,000
$1,400,000 ÷ ($90,000 + $140,000)
=$1,400,000÷$230,000
= 6.1 y
Therefore the cash payback period will be 6.1 years
Answer:
(d) debt; opposite direction
Explanation:
Bonds or debentures represent fixed interest bearing instruments issued by corporates to raise long term funds i.e usually greater than 1 year repayable after a fixed duration.
Bonds could be of various forms such as zero coupon bonds, deep discount bonds, face value bonds etc
The common aspect of all being bonds represent debt which a corporation owes which must be repaid after a fixed duration. Also bonds demand periodic interest payments i.e fixed obligation which cannot be refused by the issuer company.
There is an inverse relationship between bond prices and market interest rates.
Reason : This is because if a higher interest rate prevails in the market than the coupon rate offered by the issuer, the issuer will have to reduce the price of it's bonds so as to make them attractive else investors would rather invest in other bonds in the market offering a higher rate of return.
