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torisob [31]
3 years ago
7

Why does the marginal benefit of a diamond nearly always exceed the marginal benefit of a bottle of water?

Business
1 answer:
exis [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

B)Diamonds are much more scarce than water, so the marginal benefit of diamonds are much higher

Explanation:

Water is a necessary good, but diamonds are luxury goods. At low levels of consumption, water will provide a much higher utility than diamond. Someone very thirsty will derive much more satisfaction from drinking water than from acquiring diamonds.

Marginal benefits arise from the consumption of extra units. After one has quenched their thirst,  consuming more water later adds minimal benefits. On the other hand, diamonds are scarce and valuable. Having one is good, but getting an extra one will bring greater benefits as it increases wealth. Therefore, the marginal consumption of o diamonds has greater benefits than water.

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What are the macro<br>environmental factors that affect a<br>firm​
inessss [21]

Answer:

Hope this may help you

3 0
3 years ago
Using supply/demand analysis and words, demonstrate what a weakly enforced antiscalping law would likely do to the price of tick
erastova [34]

Full question:

In some states and localities, scalping is against the law although enforcement is spotty

A. Using supply/demand analysis and words, demonstrate what a weakly enforced antiscalping law would likely do to the price of tickets.

B. Using supply/demand analysis and words, demonstrate what a strongly enforced antiscalping law would likely do to the price of tickets

Answer and Explanation:

A. For the first scenario, a weakly enforced antiscalping law would still allow the resale of tickets as it is not enforced properly. Therefore it's effect on price would remain as though there were no laws restricting scalping( scalping: price increase created by artificial shortage and bulk resale of tickets) . See the attached diagram for the supply and demand curve and price increase as a result of a weak antiscalping law

B. For the second scenario, scalping has no effect on price as antiscalping laws are strong and therefore there is no scalping. Price remains the same and does not change.

In diagram A for first scenario price increases from p1 to p2 and quantity decreases from q1 to q2 to indicate increase in price and quantity decrease for shortage respectively. This shows the effect of scalping on the market with weak antiscalping laws

In diagram B, price and quantity remain the same to show strong antiscalping laws

7 0
2 years ago
A customer asks you a question, but you do not know the answer. You feel that they expect you to know the answer. What would you
ZanzabumX [31]

When you don't know a certain answer to a customer question be honest and tell them that you don't know the answer to this question however you will ask from your colleague about this question and will revert back to the customer.

<h3>What is a customer?</h3>

A customer is a person who is a buyer or a potential buyer of your products and or services.

The customer should be communicated of the estimated time that will be taken to revert back with the correct answer to the question. It is highly recommended that no guesses are made when you don't know a certain answer.

Learn more about Customer at brainly.com/question/27197965

#SPJ1

6 0
2 years ago
All Wet Water Softener Systems has Cash of $400?, Accounts Receivable of $1,000?, and Office Supplies of $600. All Wet owes $300
DanielleElmas [232]

Answer:

D. 5.00

Explanation:

The calculation of current ratio is given below :-

Current Ratio = Current Assets ÷ Current Liabilities

where,

Current Asset = cash + account receivable + office supply

= $400 + $1000 + $600

= $2,000

and the Current Liabilities is

= Account payable + salary payable

= $300 + $100

= $400

So, the current ratio is

= $2,000 ÷ $400

= 5 times

7 0
3 years ago
An entrepreneur founded his company using $200,000 of his own money, issuing himself 200,000 shares of stock. An angel investor
nikitadnepr [17]

Answer:

the post money valuation of the company is $1,750,000

Explanation:

The computation of the post money valuation is shown below:

Given that

Value of 400,000 shares is  $1 million.

So,

The Value of 1 share is

= $1 million ÷ 400,000

= $2.5

And,  

Total number of shares is

= 400,000 + 200,000 + 100,000

= 700,000

Now  

Total value of shares is

= $2.5 × 700,000

= $1,750,000

hence, the post money valuation of the company is $1,750,000

6 0
2 years ago
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