Answer:
0 in²
Step-by-step explanation:
Maybe it would help to show some lines or something shape-like.
Answer:
y³ + x³ = 1
First, differentiate the first time, term by term:

↑ we'll substitute this later (4th step onwards)
Differentiate the second time:


Subtract m + ? from m:
11-7 = 4
12-8 - 4
16-12 = 4
21-17 - 4
All the differences are identical, so the rule is to add 4 to m.
The expression would be m + 4
The preferred gig is the first one since its today's worth is greater than the today's value of the second gig
What is the today's worth of $5000 each year?
The worth of the second gig, which pays $5000 every year for the next 6 years in today's dollar is the present value of all the six annual cash flows discounted using the present value formula of an ordinary annuity as shown below:
PV=PMT*(1-(1+r)^-N/r
PV=present value of annual payments for 6 years=unknown
PMT=annual payment=$5000
r=required return=discount rate=8%
N=number of annual cash flows=6
PV=$5000*(1-(1+8%)^-6/8%
PV=$5000*(1-(1.08)^-6/0.08
PV=$5000*(1-0.630169626883105)/0.08
PV=$5000*0.369830373116895
/0.08
PV=$23,114.40
The fact that the present value of the second option which pays $5000 annually is lesser than the amount receivable immediately, which is $25,000, hence, the first gig is preferred
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Actual distance is 75 miles
1 inch = 15 miles
Multiply 5x15
Gives you 75