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2 years ago

6

Marty has a driveway that is 200 feet long. The tires on her car have a diameter of 18 inches. What is the fewest number of tire

rotations a tire will make tot travel the entire distance of the driveway?

2 answers:

Margarita [4]2 years ago

8 0

Answer:35

Step-by-step explanation:

Olin [163]2 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The diameter of a tire is the distance across the tire through the center. Since tires are circular, you can find the circumference of the tire from the diameter. The circumference represents the distance the tire travels when it makes one revolution. If you know the number of inches in a mile and the circumference, you can find the number of times the wheel turns per mile.

First, measure the diameter of the tire in inches.

Secondly, multiply the diameter by pi, which is approximately 3.1416, to find the tire circumference. For example, if the tire has a 20 inch diameter, multiply 20 by 3.1416 to get 62.83 inches.

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Diona told me to get this app to solve my math problems,what is 10 + 10 Jean can't help because she's doing other stuff :,)

elena55 [62]

Answer:

20

Step-by-step explanation:

10 + 10

= 20

Just add units place first.

0 + 0 = 0

Then tens place.

1 + 1 = 2

So the number,

=> 20

5 0

2 years ago

Find the midpoint of PQ<br><br> P(4 1/3, 3 1/6), Q(-2 1/5, 3 2/3)

Paha777 [63]

Answer:

$(1\frac{1}{15},3\frac{5}{12})$

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the midpoint, you must average the x's then average the y's.

So the x's are $4 \frac{1}{3}$ and $-2\frac{1}{5}$ .

The y's are $3\frac{1}{6}$ and $3\frac{2}{3}$ .

To find an average of a data with 2 elements you must add the two elements then take that sum and divide it by 2.

So this is what we will do with the x's then the y's.

So first x:

$\frac{4\frac{1}{3}+-2\frac{1}{5}}{2}$

Write as improper fractions:

$\frac{\frac{13}{3}+\frac{-11}{5}}{2}$

Division by 2 is the same as multiplying by 1/2:

$\frac{13}{6}+\frac{-11}{10}$

The least common multiple of 6 and 10 is 30. We will multiply first fraction by 5/5 and 3/3 for the second so we can have the same denominator.

$\frac{65}{30}+\frac{-33}{30}$

Now that the bottoms are the same we can write as one fraction:

$\frac{65+-33}{30}$

Simplify:

$\frac{32}{30}$

If you want the answer as a mix fraction like your question began as we can do that by first figuring out how many 30's are in 32 and what is the remainder of that division.

There is one 30 and 32 and so 32-30=2 is the remainder.

$1\frac{2}{30}$

Reduce by dividing top and bottom by 2:

$1\frac{1}{15}$

Now for y:

$\frac{3\frac{1}{6}+3\frac{2}{3}}{2}$

Write the mix fractions as improper fractions:

$\frac{\frac{19}{6}+\frac{11}{3}}{2}$

Dividing by 2 is the same as multiplying by 1/2:

$\frac{19}{12}+\frac{11}{6}$

The least common multiple of 12 and 6 is 12 so I'm going to multiply the second fraction by 2/2 so the denominators will be the same:

$\frac{19}{12}+\frac{22}{12}$

Since the denominators are the same we can write as a single fraction:

$\frac{41}{12}$

How many 12's are in 41? 3 and so the remainder is 41-3(12)=41-36=5.

$3\frac{5}{12}$

So the midpoint is:

$(1\frac{1}{15},3\frac{5}{12})$ .

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

single die is rolled twice. Find the probability of rolling an oddodd number the first time and a number greater than 33 the sec

givi [52]

Answer:

$\frac{1}{4}$

Step-by-step explanation:

A single die is rolled twice, we have to find the probability of rolling an odd number in first throw and a number greater than 3 in the second throw.

a) Rolling an Odd number in first throw

A die has total 6 possible outcomes, out of which 3 are odd numbers i.e. 1,3 and 5

So, total number of possible outcomes = 6

Total Favorable outcomes (Odd numbers) = 3

Probability is defined as the ratio of favorable outcomes to total number of outcomes. So,

The probability of rolling an odd number would be = $\frac{3}{6} = \frac{1}{2}$

b) Rolling a number greater than 3 in second throw

Here again total possible outcomes = 6

Favorable outcomes (Numbers greater than 3 are 4, 5 and 6) = 3

So,

The probability of rolling a number greater than 3 = $\frac{3}{6} = \frac{1}{2}$

These two events(rolls) are independent of each other, so the overall probability of both events occurring would be the product of individual probabilities.

So,

Probability of rolling an odd number the first time and a number greater than 3 the second time = $\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{4}$

6 0

3 years ago

Find the missing angle ?

irakobra [83]

Answer:

25

Step-by-step explanation:

because there are vertical angles

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A: What are the solutions to the quadratic equation x^2+9=0?

Nataliya [291]

Answer:

Part A)

x=-3i

x=3i

Part B)

(x+3i)(x-3i)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Part A)

x^2+9=0

x^2=-9

x= √-9

x=√-1 *√9

x=± i *3

x=±3i

Part B)

x^2+9=0

x^2 - (-9)=0

x2-(3i)^2=0

(x-3i)(x+3i)=0 !

3 0

3 years ago