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rosijanka [135]
3 years ago
6

Helppop!!A car and van are driving on a highway. The table shows the amount y (in gallons) of gas in the cars gas tank after dri

ving x miles. The amount of gas in the van’s gas tank after driving x miles is represented by the equation y=- 1/5x + 31. Which vehicle uses less gasoline per mile? How many miles must the vehicles travel for the amount of gas in each tank to be the same?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Korvikt [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The car uses less gas

They use the same amount of gas after \frac{640}{7} miles

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

The table represents the car mileage

y = -\frac{1}{5}x + 31 --- The van

First, calculate the car's slope (m)

m = \frac{y_2 - y_1}{x_2 - x_1}

From the table, we have:

(x_1,y_1) = (60,13.5);\ \ (x_2,y_2) = (180,10.5)

So, we have:

m = \frac{10.5 - 13.5}{180 - 60}

m = \frac{-3}{120}

m = -\frac{1}{40}

Calculate the equation using:

y = -\frac{1}{40}(x - 60)+13.5

y = -\frac{1}{40}x + 1.5+13.5

y = -\frac{1}{40}x + 15

m = -\frac{1}{40} implies that for every mile traveled, the car uses 1/40 gallon of gas

Also:

y = -\frac{1}{5}x + 31 --- The van

By comparison to: y = mx + b

m = -\frac{1}{5}

This implies that for every mile traveled, the van uses 1/5 gallon of gas.

By comparison:

1/40 < 1/5

This means that the car uses less gas

Solving (b): Distance traveled for them to use the same amount of gas.

We have:

y = -\frac{1}{5}x + 31 --- The van

y = -\frac{1}{40}x + 15 --- The car

Equate both

-\frac{1}{5}x + 31 =-\frac{1}{40}x + 15

Collect like terms

\frac{1}{40}x -\frac{1}{5}x  =-31 + 15

\frac{1}{40}x -\frac{1}{5}x  =-16

Take LCM

\frac{x - 8x}{40} = -16

\frac{- 7x}{40} = -16

Solve for -7x

-7x = -640

Solve for x

x = \frac{640}{7}

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Answer:

First we write y and its derivatives as power series:

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Next, plug into differential equation:

(x+2)y′′+xy′−y=0

(x+2)∑n=2∞n(n−1)anxn−2+x∑n=1∞nanxn−1−∑n=0∞anxn=0

x∑n=2∞n(n−1)anxn−2+2∑n=2∞n(n−1)anxn−2+x∑n=1∞nanxn−1−∑n=0∞anxn=0

Move constants inside of summations:

∑n=2∞x⋅n(n−1)anxn−2+∑n=2∞2⋅n(n−1)anxn−2+∑n=1∞x⋅nanxn−1−∑n=0∞anxn=0

∑n=2∞n(n−1)anxn−1+∑n=2∞2n(n−1)anxn−2+∑n=1∞nanxn−∑n=0∞anxn=0

Change limits so that the exponents for  x  are the same in each summation:

∑n=1∞(n+1)nan+1xn+∑n=0∞2(n+2)(n+1)an+2xn+∑n=1∞nanxn−∑n=0∞anxn=0

Pull out any terms from sums, so that each sum starts at same lower limit  (n=1)

∑n=1∞(n+1)nan+1xn+4a2+∑n=1∞2(n+2)(n+1)an+2xn+∑n=1∞nanxn−a0−∑n=1∞anxn=0

Combine all sums into a single sum:

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Now we must set each coefficient, including constant term  =0 :

4a2−a0=0⟹4a2=a0

2(n+2)(n+1)an+2+(n+1)nan+1+(n−1)an=0

We would usually let  a0  and  a1  be arbitrary constants. Then all other constants can be expressed in terms of these two constants, giving us two linearly independent solutions. However, since  a0=4a2 , I’ll choose  a1  and  a2  as the two arbitrary constants. We can still express all other constants in terms of  a1  and/or  a2 .

an+2=−(n+1)nan+1+(n−1)an2(n+2)(n+1)

a3=−(2⋅1)a2+0a12(3⋅2)=−16a2=−13!a2

a4=−(3⋅2)a3+1a22(4⋅3)=0=04!a2

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We see a pattern emerging here:

an=(−1)(n+1)n−4n!a2

This can be proven by mathematical induction. In fact, this is true for all  n≥0 , except for  n=1 , since  a1  is an arbitrary constant independent of  a0  (and therefore independent of  a2 ).

Plugging back into original power series for  y , we get:

y=a0+a1x+a2x2+a3x3+a4x4+a5x5+⋯

y=4a2+a1x+a2x2−13!a2x3+04!a2x4+15!a2x5−⋯

y=a1x+a2(4+x2−13!x3+04!x4+15!x5−⋯)

Notice that the expression following constant  a2  is  =4+  a power series (starting at  n=2 ). However, if we had the appropriate  x -term, we would have a power series starting at  n=0 . Since the other independent solution is simply  y1=x,  then we can let  a1=c1−3c2,   a2=c2 , and we get:

y=(c1−3c2)x+c2(4+x2−13!x3+04!x4+15!x5−⋯)

y=c1x+c2(4−3x+x2−13!x3+04!x4+15!x5−⋯)

y=c1x+c2(−0−40!+0−31!x−2−42!x2+3−43!x3−4−44!x4+5−45!x5−⋯)

y=c1x+c2∑n=0∞(−1)n+1n−4n!xn

Learn more about constants here:

brainly.com/question/11443401

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