Hey man I got u. The answer for this question is B. Peace
If f(x)=x+1 and then x became 2, you would have the function f(x)=3. So basically for that function you would be going up three over 1. That function is already g(x)=4x. If X became 2, you would have g(x)=8x. The rate of up 8 and then over one. Because of that, g(x) would be higher
Step-by-step explanation:
hope this helps have a great day!
The anwser is C!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! ik this because i calculated it my self
Bottom left. Because of th eminus sign, the v curve is "upside-down" and because of the +1, its function value peak is at 1
