Answer:
The loss on transfer of receivables is $960,000
Explanation:
Sales amount $12,000,000
Finance charge 3%*$12 million ($360,000)
Retention amount 10%*$12 million ($1,200,000)
Cash upfront $ 10,440,000
The recourse liability is $600,000,which means that additional liability of $600,000 would be incurred by Lacuna Inc, if the total amount from the receivables is not received owing to the fact that the factoring is with recourse.
The loss on transfer of receivables is shown as:
Finance charge $360,000
Recourse liability $600,000
total loss $960,000
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "D": The use of a higher estimated life and a higher residual value will lower the annual amount of depreciation expense recognized on the income statement.
Explanation:
Depreciation distributes the cost and cost over the useful life of the assets of tangible and real assets. A business could depreciate an asset over a period of up to thirty years, depending on the type of asset it is. There are many depreciation methods but, among the most common we can find the <em>Straight-line method, the Double Declining Balance method</em>, and <em>the Units of Production method</em>. As long as the estimated life of the asset and its residual value is high, the amount filed for the depreciation will be lower.
Answer:
4.16%
Explanation:
to calculate Singapore's economic growth rate we can use the future value formula (we could also use the rule of 72 but it is not very exact):
future value = present value x (1 + r) ⁿ
- future value = 900
- present value = 450
- n = 17
- r = ?
900 = 450 (1 + r)¹⁷
(1 + r)¹⁷ = 900 / 450 = 2
1 + r = ¹⁷√2 = 1.0416
r = 1.0416 - 1 = 0.0416 or 4.16%
Answer:
4.33.
Explanation:
Inventory turnover is a ratio that tells us the number of times a company sells and replaces its inventory. It is calculated by taking Cost of Goods Sold for a period and dividing it by Average Inventory [(Opening + Ending) / 2].
⇒ 300,000 / [(64,400 + 74,200) / 2] = 300,000 / 69,300 = 4.33.
It means that Marian Company sold its inventory 4.33 times during the Year.
Answer:
Total PV= $26,176.63
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Cash flow:
Cf1= $5,700
Cf2= $10,700
Cf3= $16,900
<u>To calculate the price of the investment now, we need to use the following formula on each cash flow:</u>
PV= Cf / (1+i)^n
PV1= 5,700/1.11= 5,135.14
PV2= 10,700/1.11^2= 8,684.36
PV3= 16,900/1.11^3= 12,357.13
Total PV= $26,176.63
