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3 years ago

What is 0.03 out of 1 as a percent?

2 answers:

3 0

When trying to find a percent, it is best to multiply everything by 100 (as a percentage is out of 100). 0.03*100= 3 and 1*100=100. Therefore, 0.03 as a percent is 3% Hope this helps :)

Gre4nikov [31]3 years ago

3 0

Your answer will be 3%

you have to multiply 0.03 by 100 to get your answer which is 3

0.03 is 3% of 1

You might be interested in

Can someone answer question 2a and b only please

Mice21 [21]

Answer:

2a) -2

b) 8

Step-by-step explanation:

Equation of a parabola in vertex form

f(x) = a(x - h)² + k

where (h, k) is the vertex and the axis of symmetry is x = h

2 a)

Using the equation of a parabola in vertex form, a parabola with vertex (2, -6):

f(x) = a(x - 2)² - 6

If one of the x-axis intercepts is 6, then

f(6) = 0

⇒ a(6 - 2)² - 6 = 0

⇒ 16a - 6 = 0

⇒ 16a = 6

⇒ a = 6/16 = 3/8

So f(x) = 3/8(x - 2)² - 6

To find the other intercept, set f(x) = 0 and solve for x:

f(x) = 0

⇒ 3/8(x - 2)² - 6 = 0

⇒ 3/8(x - 2)² = 6

⇒ (x - 2)² = 16

⇒ x - 2 = ±4

⇒ x = 6, -2

Therefore, the other x-axis intercept is -2

Using the equation of a parabola in vertex form, a parabola with vertex (2, -6):

f(x) = a(x - 2)² - 6

If one of the x-axis intercepts is -4, then

f(-4) = 0

⇒ a(-4 - 2)² - 6 = 0

⇒ 36a - 6 = 0

⇒ 36a = 6

⇒ a = 6/36 = 1/6

So f(x) = 1/6(x - 2)² - 6

To find the other intercept, set f(x) = 0 and solve for x:

f(x) = 0

⇒ 1/6(x - 2)² - 6 = 0

⇒ 1/6(x - 2)² = 6

⇒ (x - 2)² = 36

⇒ x - 2 = ±6

⇒ x = 8, -4

Therefore, the other x-axis intercept is 8

8 0

2 years ago

7. Solve the equation. 6(x - 2) = 36 0-8 04 04 08 What one

rusak2 [61]

Answer:

General Formulas and Concepts:

Pre-Algebra

Order of Operations: BPEMDAS

Brackets
Parenthesis
Exponents
Multiplication
Division
Addition
Subtraction

Left to Right

Equality Properties

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Define

6(x - 2) = 36

Step 2: Solve for x

Divide 6 on both sides: x - 2 = 6
Add 2 on both sides: x = 8

6 0

3 years ago

A car dealer reported a 7.5% drop in sales from 895 cars. How many cars were sold?

Evgesh-ka [11]

Answer:

its is 38.6

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0

3 years ago

L –3 | A. 3 B. -3 C. 0.30 D. 30

Vesnalui [34]

Answer:

| -3 | = 3

Step-by-step explanation:

minus is removed

7 0

3 years ago

The one-time fling! Have you ever purchased an article of clothing (dress, sports jacket, etc.), worn the item once to a party,

rjkz [21]

Answer:

a) 0.2725

b) 0.7275

c) 0.8948

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a binomial distribution probability problem. The formula is:

$P(x)=\frac{n!}{(n-x)!x!}p^{x}q^{n-x}$

Where

n is the number of trials [here we are taking 8 person, so n = 8]

x is what we are looking for [in the problem]

p is the probability of success [ 15%, so p = 0.15

q is the probability of failure [q = 1-p = 0.85]

Now,

We are looking for "no one" did fling, so x = 0

Let's put into formula and find out the probability:

$P(x=0)=\frac{8!}{(8-0)!0!}(0.15)^{0}(0.85)^{8}\\P(x=0)=0.2725$

So, the probability that no one has done a one-time fling is 0.2725

Atleast 1 person means P(x ≥ 1).

This can be found by:

P(x ≥ 1) = 1 - P(x=0) = 1 - 0.2725 = 0.7275

THus, Probability that at least one person has done a one-time fling is 0.7275

No more than 2 people means P (x≤2).

This is essentially

P ( x ≤ 2 ) = P(x=0) + P(x=1) + P(x=2)

P ( x = 0 ) is found in part (a), which is 0.2725

P (x = 1 ) and P(x=2) can be found using formula:

$P(x=1)=\frac{8!}{(8-1)!1!}(0.15)^{1}(0.85)^{7}\\P(x=1)=0.3847$

and

$P(x=2)=\frac{8!}{(8-2)!2!}(0.15)^{2}(0.85)^{6}\\P(x=2)=0.2376$

Thus,

P ( x ≤ 2 ) = P(x=0) + P(x=1) + P(x=2) = 0.2725 + 0.3847 + 0.2376 = 0.8948

8 0

3 years ago