Answer:
the share should sell at $46
Explanation:
We use the CAPM method to know the required return of the capital
risk free 0.04
market rate 0.1
beta(non diversifiable risk) 2
Ke 0.16000 = 16%
Now we calculate with the dividends grow model the intrinsic value of the share:


$4.6/0.1 = $46
Answer and Explanation:
The computation is given below:
For Bank A,
Effective annual rate is
= (1 + 0.10 ÷ 12)^12 - 1
= 10.47%
For Bank B,
Effective annual rate is
= (1 + 0.11 ÷ 4)^4 - 1
= 11.46%
And,
For Bank C,
Effective annual rate = 12%
Therefore, Bank A is best to borrow at lowest effective annual rate
Bondholders regularly receive interest income at a preset interest rate, or coupon rate, for a specified period of time. This is the bond’s maturity period.<span> Holders can also sell the bonds in the bond market at their current market price.
So the Answer is BONDS
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