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Viktor [21]
4 years ago
8

5 − 2x + 2 = 12 work below hurry!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
IrinaVladis [17]4 years ago
4 0
5-2 is 3. Subtract three from both sides. 2x=8. Divide by 2. X=4
Kipish [7]4 years ago
4 0

Step-by-step explanation:

5-2x+2=12 given

-2x+7=12 combine like terms

-2x=5 subtraction property

X=-2.5 or 5/2 ANSWER

You might be interested in
2 cups of oats
Marrrta [24]

Answer:

=8 oats to 1 flaxseed

= 4 oats to 1 quinoa

= 3 oats to 1 soy protein

Step-by-step explanation:

given

2 cups of oats  

1/4 cup of flaxseed  

1/2 cup of quinoa

2/3cup of soy protein

the ratios for the amount of oats to the amount of each of other grain =

2 cups of oats   : 1/4 cup of flaxseed  

=2 : 1/4

=2 / 0.25

=8 : 1

= 8 oats to 1 flaxseed

2 cups of oats   : 1/2 cup of quinoa

= 2 : 1/2

= 2 : 0.5

= 4 : 1

= 4 oats to 1 quinoa

2 cups of oats   : 2/3cup of soy protein

= 2 : 2/3

= 2 : 0.667

= 3 : 1

= 3 oats to 1 soy protein

8 0
4 years ago
The diameter of a pearl is about 4 x 10-3cm and the diameter of an atom is about10-11m. How much larger than an atom is a pearl?
Ugo [173]

Answer:

  • D. 4 × 10⁶ times

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>The diameter of a pearl is </u>

  • 4 × 10⁻³cm = 4 × 10⁻⁵ m

<u>The diameter of an atom is</u>

  • 10⁻¹¹m

<u>How much larger than an atom is a pearl?</u>

  • 4 × 10⁻⁵ ÷ 10⁻¹¹ = 4 × 10⁻⁵⁺¹¹ = 4 × 10⁶ times

Correct option is D

5 0
3 years ago
An urn contains three white balls and two red balls. The balls are drawn from the urn, oneat a time without replacement, until a
Tpy6a [65]

Answer:

p ( X = 1 ) = 0.6 , p ( X = 2 ) = 0.3 , p ( X = 3 ) = 0.1

Verified

E ( X ) = 1.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Solution:-

- An urn contains the following colored balls:

                       Color                  Number of balls

                       White                            3

                       Red                               2

- A ball is drawn from urn without replacement until a white ball is drawn for the first time.

- We will construct cases to determine the distribution of the random-variable X: The number of trials it takes to get the first white ball.

- We have three following case:

1) White ball is drawn on the first attempt ( X =  1 ). The probability of drawing a white ball in the first trial would be:

              p ( X = 1 ) = ( Number of white balls ) / ( Total number of ball )

              p ( X = 1 ) = ( 3 ) / ( 5 )

2) A red ball is drawn on the first draw and a white ball is drawn on the second trial ( X = 2 ). The probability of drawing a red ball first would be:

      p ( Red on first trial ) = ( Number of red balls ) / ( Total number of balls )

      p ( Red on first trial ) = ( 2 ) / ( 5 )

- Then draw a white ball from a total of 4 balls left in the urn ( remember without replacement ).

   p ( White on second trial ) = ( Number of white balls ) / ( number of balls left )

   p ( White on second trial ) = ( 3 ) / ( 4 )

- Then to draw red on first trial and white ball on second trial we can express:

                p ( X = 2 ) =  p ( Red on first trial ) *  p ( White on second trial )

                p ( X = 2 ) =  ( 2 / 5 ) * ( 3 / 4 )

                p ( X = 2 ) =  ( 3 / 10 )  

3) A red ball is drawn on the first draw and second draw and then a white ball is drawn on the third trial ( X = 3 ). The probability of drawing a red ball first would be ( 2 / 5 ). Then we are left with 4 balls in the urn, we again draw a red ball:

   p ( Red on second trial ) = ( Number of red balls ) / ( number of balls left )

   p ( Red on second trial ) = ( 1 ) / ( 4 )    

 

- Then draw a white ball from a total of 3 balls left in the urn ( remember without replacement ).                  

   p ( White on 3rd trial ) = ( Number of white balls ) / ( number of balls left )

   p ( White on 3rd trial ) = ( 3 ) / ( 3 ) = 1

- Then to draw red on first two trials and white ball on third trial we can express:

                p ( X = 3 ) =  p ( Red on 1st trial )*p ( Red on 2nd trial )*p ( White on 3rd trial )

                p ( X = 3 ) =  ( 2 / 5 ) * ( 1 / 4 ) * 1

                p ( X = 3 ) =  ( 1 / 10 )  

- The probability distribution of X is as follows:

    X          1                  2                      3

p ( X )      0.6               0.3                  0.1

- To verify the above the distribution. We will sum all the probabilities for all outcomes ( X = 1 , 2 , 3 ) must be equal to 1.

          ∑ p ( Xi ) = 0.6 + 0.3 + 0.1

                         = 1 ( proven it is indeed a pmf )

- The expected value E ( X ) of the distribution i.e the expected number of trials until we draw a white ball for the first time:

               E ( X ) = ∑ [ p ( Xi ) * Xi  ]

               E ( X ) = ( 1 ) * ( 0.6 ) + ( 2 ) * ( 0.3 ) + ( 3 ) * ( 0.1 )

               E ( X ) = 0.6 + 0.6 + 0.3

               E ( X ) = 1.5 trials until first white ball is drawn.

8 0
4 years ago
What is the equation of the line described below written in slope-intercept form?
vladimir1956 [14]

Answer:

y=1x+2 or y=x+2

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that the slope is going to be one since the slopes of parallel lines are equal and the other equation has a slope of 1. We can then use the equation y=1x+b and the point given, (2,4), to find the y-intercept, b. You plug in (2,4) as your x and y values to get 4=1(2)+b. You can then solve this by multiplying to get 4=2+b, then subtracting 2 from both sides to get b=2. We can then use b to complete the equation as y=1x+2 or y=x+2.

3 0
4 years ago
What is the down payment total for a $189,700 home at 15% down
svet-max [94.6K]

Answer:

$28,455

Step-by-step explanation:

Change 15% into a decimal.

(15)(1/100)=0.15

***(1/100) because 15 part of the whole 100 percent/.

(189,700)(0.15)

=28455

4 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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