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s2008m [1.1K]
2 years ago
11

PLEASE HELP ASAP!!! URGENT

Mathematics
1 answer:
neonofarm [45]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

1) \frac{\sin x}{1-\cos x} = \csc x + \cot x

2) \frac{\sin x}{1-\cos x} =  \frac{1}{\sin x} + \frac{\cos x}{\sin x}

3) \frac{\sin x}{1-\cos x} = \frac{1+\cos x}{\sin x}

4) \frac{\sin x}{1-\cos x} = \frac{\sin x \cdot (1+\cos x)}{\sin^{2}x}

5) \frac{\sin x}{1-\cos x} = \frac{\sin x\cdot (1+\cos x)}{1-\cos^{2}x}

6) \frac{\sin x}{1-\cos x} = \frac{\sin x\cdot (1+\cos x)}{(1+\cos x)\cdot (1-\cos x)}

7) \frac{\sin x}{1-\cos x} = \frac{\sin x}{1-\cos x}

Step-by-step explanation:

Now we proceed to show all steps needed to demonstrate the trigonometric identity:

1) \frac{\sin x}{1-\cos x} = \csc x + \cot x Given.

2) \frac{\sin x}{1-\cos x} =  \frac{1}{\sin x} + \frac{\cos x}{\sin x} Identities for cosecant and cotangent functions.

3) \frac{\sin x}{1-\cos x} = \frac{1+\cos x}{\sin x}             \frac{a}{b}+\frac{c}{b} = \frac{a+c}{b}

4) \frac{\sin x}{1-\cos x} = \frac{\sin x \cdot (1+\cos x)}{\sin^{2}x} Existence of additive inverse/Modulative property.

5) \frac{\sin x}{1-\cos x} = \frac{\sin x\cdot (1+\cos x)}{1-\cos^{2}x}    Fundamental trigonometric identity.

6) \frac{\sin x}{1-\cos x} = \frac{\sin x\cdot (1+\cos x)}{(1+\cos x)\cdot (1-\cos x)}   Factorization.

7) \frac{\sin x}{1-\cos x} = \frac{\sin x}{1-\cos x} Existence of additive inverse/Modulative property/Result.

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Rina8888 [55]

ANSWER

x =  \frac{\pi}{2} , \frac{7\pi}{6} , \frac{3\pi}{2} , \frac{11\pi}{6}

EXPLANATION

The given trigonometric equation is

\cos(x)  + 2 \cos(x)  \sin(x)  = 0

We factor cos(x) to get:

\cos(x) (1 + 2 \sin(x) ) = 0

Apply the zero product property to obtain:

\cos(x)  = 0 \: or \: 1 + 2 \sin(x)  =  0

\cos(x)  = 0 \: or \: \sin(x)  =   -  \frac{1}{2}

Using the unit circle,

\cos(x)  = 0

when

x =  \frac{\pi}{2}

and

x =  \frac{3\pi}{2}

We know

\sin(y)  =  \frac{1}{2}

when

y=  \frac{\pi}{6}

The sine function is negative in the third and fourth quadrants.

x = \pi +  \frac{\pi}{6}  =  \frac{7\pi}{6}

x = 2\pi  -   \frac{\pi}{6}  =  \frac{11\pi}{6}

Hence the solutions are:

x =  \frac{\pi}{2} , \frac{7\pi}{6} , \frac{3\pi}{2} , \frac{11\pi}{6}

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Are 14, 6 + 8, and (6 + 8) equivalent expressions? Explain your reasoning.
Sloan [31]

The expressions 14, 6 + 8, and (6 + 8) are equivalent because they are all equal to 1

<h3>Equivalent expression</h3>

14

6 + 8

= 14

(6 + 8)

= 14

The coefficient of (6 + 8) is 1, so, the expression remains the same.

<h3>What is equivalent expression?</h3>

Equivalent expressions refers to those expressions that work the same even though they look different.

The importance or significance of equivalent expression is that its makes expressions easier to work with and solve.

Therefore, the expressions 14, 6 + 8, and (6 + 8) are all equivalent to 14.

Learn more about equivalent expression:

brainly.com/question/15775046

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