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igomit [66]
3 years ago
6

For each equation, what could you do first to each side of the equation so that there would be no fractions?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Shtirlitz [24]3 years ago
4 0
2,4,5
Multiply each side by 48, 24, and 60
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Use Theorem 2.1.1 to verify the logical equivalence. Give a reason for each step. -(pv –q) v(-p^q) = ~p
sertanlavr [38]

Answer:

The statement \lnot(p\lor\lnot q)\lor(\lnot p \land \lnot q) is equivalent to \lnot p, \lnot(p\lor\lnot q)\lor(\lnot p \land \lnot q) \equiv \lnot p

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to prove that the following statement \lnot(p\lor\lnot q)\lor(\lnot p \land \lnot q) is equivalent to \lnot p with the use of Theorem 2.1.1.

So

\lnot(p\lor\lnot q)\lor(\lnot p \land \lnot q) \equiv

\equiv (\lnot p \land \lnot(\lnot q))\lor(\lnot p \land \lnot q) by De Morgan's law.

\equiv (\lnot p \land q)\lor(\lnot p \land \lnot q) by the Double negative law

\equiv \lnot p \land (q \lor \lnot q) by the Distributive law

\equiv \lnot p \land t by the Negation law

\equiv \lnot p by Universal bound law

Therefore \lnot(p\lor\lnot q)\lor(\lnot p \land \lnot q) \equiv \lnot p

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3 years ago
(2x+5)* (8x+5)* Help help help
GuDViN [60]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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