Answer:
3/7
Step-by-step explanation:
its 3/7 because there are 3 weekend days and there are 7 days in total in one week, so out of the week there is 3 weekend days.
i hope this helps :)
Answer:
1,333
Step-by-step explanation:
You do v times p because you need the dividend. So you multiply the quotient and divisor.
Answer:
I got the same question on Khan Academy. I was going to ask that too but saw that you already did. Maybe try to point it out to someone else on Brainly. Sorry that I could not help.
Step-by-step explanation:
Let's assume there are 52 weeks in a year,
so we have , rate= 6.4/52= 0.123%
now ,
c.i = 5000[(1+0.123/100)^3×52 -1]
= $1056.911
took me a while
It will be A) 1/7 because using the rise over run meathod you get 1/7 and it will be possitive
