Answer:
Variable Overhead Rate Variance - $55 favorable
Variable Overhead Efficiency Variance - $275 favorable
Over applied efficiency variance - $330 favorable
Explanation:
The computations are shown below:
Variable Overhead Rate Variance = Actual Hours × (Actual Rate - Standard variable overhead Rate)
= 1,100 hours × ($2.70 - 2.75)
= $55 favorable
Variable Overhead Efficiency Variance = Standard variable overhead Rate × (Actual Hours - Standard Hours)
= $2.75 × (1,100 hours - 1 × 1,200)
= $275 favorable
So, the over-applied variable overhead would be
= $55 favorable + $275 favorable
= $330 favorable
Answer: $28,300
Explanation:
The gain that Bramble will recognize will goes thus:
First and foremost, we have to calculate the accumulated depreciation on the equipment and this will be:
= (768,000 - 36,000)/10 x 9
= 658,800
After that, we would find the value of the net Bmbook value on Dec 31, 2020 and this will be:
= 768,000 - 658,800
= 109,200
The gain will then be:
= Sales value - Net book value
= 137,500 - 109,200
= 28,300
Answer:
The correct answer is the option A: True.
Explanation:
To begin with, the <em>"Clayton Antitrust Act of 1914"</em> is the name given to a law that was part of United States antitrust law regime that had the main purpose of adding further substance to it in order to prevent anticompetitive practices by the companies in the market. Therefore that this law discusses four principles of economic trade and business which were the price discrimination, mergers and acquisitions, exclusive dealings and any person who was a manager of two or more organizations at the same time. It all focused on protecting the competition from the companies that looked for becoming a monopoly.
Answer:
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
A machine with a cost of $65,000 has an estimated residual value of $5,000 and an estimated life of 4 years or 18,000 hours.
To calculate the depreciation expense for each year, we need to use the following formula:
Annual depreciation= 2*[(book value)/estimated life (years)]
Year1= [(65,000 - 5,000)/4]*2= $30,000
Year2= [(60,000 - 30,000)/4]*2= $15,000
Yes I do believe that but not in all men tho some are different
