Answer:
$2,880
Step-by-step explanation:
interest = (principal * rate * time)/100
= (15000 * 3.2 * 6)/ 100
= 2880
Answer:
it equals x=10 so i guess it's B
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
The correct option is c which is if this test was one-tailed instead of two-tailed, you would reject the null.
Step-by-step explanation:
a: This statement cannot be true as the p-value for a 1 tailed test is dependent on the level of significance and other features.
b: This statement cannot be true as there is no valid mathematical correlation between the p-value of the one-tailed test and the current p-value.
c: This statement is true because due to the enhanced level of significance, the null hypothesis will not be rejected.
d: This statement is inverse of statement c which cannot be true.
e: The statement cannot be true as there is no correlation between the current p-value and the p-value of 1 tailed test. The correlation exists between the values of one-tailed and two-tailed p-values.
This is tricky because we are given the interest rate for the year but the problem is figureing the interest for 6 months or 1/2 year. We will have to double the difference before solving for the yearly interest.
572.60 - 560.00 = 12.60 interest added for 6 months x 2 = 25.20 for 12 months
(This problem assumes the interest will stay the same the next 6 months)
We need to find what percent 25.20 is to our original balance.
25.20/560 = x / 100
2520 = 560x
x = 4.5 percent interest
Check .045 x 560.00 = 25.20 interest in one year (or 12.60 in 6 months)
