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zavuch27 [327]
2 years ago
14

Please help me the tables i circles are the linear ones. Please help with them all.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Margarita [4]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

2/10

20/40

15/35

Step-by-step explanation:

mash [69]2 years ago
3 0
What is this can you explain question properly
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Use &lt;, &gt;, or = to fill in the blanks.<br> -7----- 0<br> Please help me!
Oduvanchick [21]

Answer:

<

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
What term is 1/1024 in the geometric sequence,-1,1/4,-1/6..?
Trava [24]

Answer:

\large\boxed{\text{sixth term is equal to}\ \dfrac{1}{1024}}

Step-by-step explanation:

The explicit formula for a geometric sequence:

a_n=a_1r^{n-1}

a_n - n-th term

a_1 - first term

r - common ratio

r=\dfrac{a_2}{a_1}=\dfrac{a_3}{a_2}=...=\dfrac{a_n}{a_{n-1}}

We have

a_1=-1,\ a_2=\dfrac{1}{4},\ a_3=-\dfrac{1}{6},\ ...

The common ratio:

r=\dfrac{\frac{1}{4}}{-1}=-\dfrac{1}{4}\\\\r=\dfrac{-\frac{1}{6}}{\frac{1}{4}}=-\dfrac{1}{6}\cdot\dfrac{4}{1}=-\dfrac{2}{3}\neq-\dfrac{1}{4}

<h2>It's not a geometric sequence.</h2>

If a_3=-\dfrac{1}{16} then the common ratio is r=\dfrac{-\frac{1}{16}}{\frac{1}{4}}=-\dfrac{1}{16}\cdot\dfrac{4}{1}=-\dfrac{1}{4}

Put to the explicit formula:

a_n=-1\left(-\dfrac{1}{4}\right)^{n-1}

Put a_n=\dfrac{1}{1024} and solve for <em>n </em>:

-1\left(-\dfrac{1}{4}\right)^{n-1}=\dfrac{1}{1024}\qquad\text{use}\ a^n:a^m=a^{n-m}\\\\-\left(-\dfrac{1}{4}\right)^n:\left(-\dfrac{1}{4}\right)^1=\dfrac{1}{1024}\\\\-\left(-\dfrac{1}{4}\right)^n\cdot(-4)=\dfrac{1}{1024}\\\\(4)\left(-\dfrac{1}{4}\right)^n=\dfrac{1}{1024}\qquad\text{divide both sides by 4}\ \text{/multiply both sides by}\ \dfrac{1}{4}/\\\\\left(-\dfrac{1}{4}\right)^n=\dfrac{1}{4096}\\\\\dfrac{(-1)^n}{4^n}=\dfrac{1}{4^6}\qquad n\ \text{must be even number. Therefore}\ (-1)^n=1

\dfrac{1}{4^n}=\dfrac{1}{4^6}\iff n=6

5 0
3 years ago
Plzz help me to solve this qns please
tatiyna

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  ₹14000

Step-by-step explanation:

Let c represent the cost price, and m represent the marked price.

  c × (1 +40%) = m

  m × (1 -15%) - c = ₹1900

Using the first expression for m, the second equation becomes ...

  1.40c×0.85 -c = ₹1900

  0.19c = ₹1900

  c = ₹1900/0.19 = ₹10000

Then the marked price was ...

  m = 1.40c = 1.40×₹10000 = ₹14000

The marked price was ₹14000.

_____

The selling price was ₹11900.

7 0
3 years ago
PLZ HELP OMG!! I’ll mark Brainliest to whoever gives correct answer first!!!
azamat

Answer:

Step-by-step explanatioThe chosen topic is not meant for use with this type of problem. Try the examples below.

2

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x

2

−

1

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=

16

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(

0

,

4

)

 

8

=

2

(

3

x

+

3

)

2

,  

(

−

1

,

3

)

x

(

x

+

4

)

=

24

,  

(

−

2

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9

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n:

3 0
3 years ago
What is 2/3 of 9000?
nikklg [1K]

Step-by-step explanation:

6000

your answer is 6000

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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