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nydimaria [60]
3 years ago
7

Can any one help WILL GIVE 30 POINTS

Mathematics
2 answers:
Margarita [4]3 years ago
6 0
The believe the answer is C but I could be wrong, good luck!
Phoenix [80]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:I think it’s b too

Step-by-step explanation:

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(05.02 MC)
Anon25 [30]

Option C:

It is  \frac{1}{3} throughout the line.

Solution:

Point on the larger shaded triangle are (0, 0) and (–6, –2).  

Point on the smaller shaded triangle are (–6, –2) and (–9, –3).

Slope of the line:

 $m=\frac{y_{2}-y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}

Slope of the larger triangle:

Here,  x_{1}=0, y_{1}=0, x_{2}=-6, y_{2}=-2

 $m=\frac{-2-0}{-6-0}

 $m=\frac{-2}{-6}

 $m=\frac{1}{3}  

Slope of the smaller triangle:

Here,  x_{1}=-6, y_{1}=-2, x_{2}=-9, y_{2}=-3

 $m=\frac{-3-(-2)}{-9-(-6)}

 $m=\frac{-3+2}{-9+6}

 $m=\frac{-1}{-3}

 $m=\frac{1}{3}

Both slopes are equal.

It is  \frac{1}{3} throughout the line.

Hence option B is the correct answer.

8 0
4 years ago
Can someone please explain to me how to work this out?
Ludmilka [50]

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

the way i work it out is if you take the product and power it to the third you can easily find out which answer is correct. another way, if you don't have a calculator is to look at the last digit in the number in the square root sign.

For example, 3 square root 64 equals 8. you would look at the 4 and try to find 3 numbers that end in 4 OR is divisible three times by the number. 64 is exactly divisible by 4 only 3 times so you know that it can't be 8.

hope this helps!

3 0
3 years ago
On a coordinate plane, an exponential function approaches y = 0 in quadrant 2 and increases from quadrant 2 into quadrant 1. It
dusya [7]

Answer:

f(x) = 2^{(3x)}

Step-by-step explanation:

The given options are,

a) f(x) = 2^{(3x)}

b) f(x) = ({\frac {1}{2}})^{3x}

c) f(x) = 2 \times ({\frac {1}{3}})^{x}

d) f(x) = \frac {1}{2} \times ({\frac {1}{3}})^{x}

Now, among the given options only option (a) satisfies the criteria stated in the question i. e.,

     1. f(x) → 0 as x → - ∞  and

     2 f(0) = 1

so, the correct answer is,

f(x) = 2^{(3x)}

7 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Complete the identity
spin [16.1K]

Answer: cos(\pi-x)=-cos(x)

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to apply the following identity:

cos(A - B) = cos A*cos B + sinA*sin B

Then, applying this, you know that for cos(\pi-x):

cos(\pi-x)=cos(\pi)*cos(x)+sin(\pi)*sin(x)

We need to remember that:

cos(\pi)=-1 and sin(\pi)=0

Therefore, we need to substitute these values into cos(\pi-x)=cos(\pi)*cos(x)+sin(\pi)*sin(x).

Then, you get:

cos(\pi-x)=(-1)*cos(x)+0*sin(x)

cos(\pi-x)=-1cos(x)+0

cos(\pi-x)=-cos(x)

8 0
3 years ago
Simplify the square root of -18
Levart [38]

The square root of -18 is 3i√ 2

Hope this helps


4 0
3 years ago
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