Answer:
Cost of Goods Sold will decrease by $2,679 after proration.
Explanation:
Under-applied or over applied overhead:
= Overhead incurred - Overhead applied
= $76,000 - $79,700
= (-$3,700)
Therefore, the Cost of Goods Sold after the proration:
= (over applied overhead × Overhead applied to COGS) ÷ Total overhead applied to cost of goods sold and finished goods
= ($3,700 × $57,700) ÷ ($57,700 + $22,000)
= $213,490,000 ÷ $79,700
= $2,679
Hence, the Cost of Goods Sold will decrease by $2,679 after proration.
I think it’s B but somebody correct me if I’m
Wrong
Answer:
According to Given Data
$1,444
According to attached question
C.$4,181
Explanation:
Options are inconsistent with the data provided.
Net present value is the Net value all cash inflows and outflows in present value term. All the cash flows are discounted using a required rate of return.
Ne t present value of the machine is $1,444
Options are inconsistent with the data provided.
Workings are made in an MS Excel file, which is attached with this answer.
Original Question is attached with this answer, please find it.
According to correct data
Ne t present value of the machine is $4,181
Answer:
Of course you should be concerned about negative cash outflows resulting from investing or financing activities.
Negative cash outflows for investing activities means that the company purchased more fixed assets or securities this year than the ones that were sold. E.g. the company purchased new equipment for $100,000. Investing activities usually require large amounts of cash.
If financing activities yield negative numbers, it means that either the company paid too much in dividends, or they paid long term debts (e.g. retired bonds or paid back bank loans), but at the same time did not raise enough capital to offset them.
When you are analyzing the finances of a company, cash is king. A company might be very profitable, but it will not survive it its cash flows are negative. If there are enough positive cash flows from operating activities to offset these other cash outflows, then the company should be OK. But if operating cash flows cannot offset them, then the company should be concerned.
Answer:
$6,574
Explanation:
Allowance for uncollectible accounts is a contra asset account and it has credit nature. It needs to be debited to decrease the balance and credited to increase the balance. Balance of this account is adjusted in the account receivable to report the net receivable balance in the balance sheet.
As per given data
Beginning allowance for uncollectible accounts balance = $216,000
Write off is the adjustment mad in this account and it needs to be debited in this account, this transaction will reduce the balance.
Adjusted Balance = $8,400 - 7,800 = $600
Account receivable balance = $216,000 + 1,007,800 - $978,000 = $245,800
Estimated allowance for uncollectible accounts balance = $245,800 x 3% = $7,374
As allowance for uncollectible accounts has already have balance of $600, Bad debt expense for the year is $6,574 ($7,374 - $800)
