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3 years ago

60 points! Please help me fast this is due soon. I will mark brainliest. Random answers will be reported.

Mathematics

2 answers:

Blababa [14]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

scale factor is 4 and m is 16.

Step-by-step explanation:

This is because these are similar rectangles, so the proportion of each side to the congruent side is the same. This means that to get from 7 to 28 u multiply by a scale factor of 4, and to get m you would multiply 4 by 4.

Romashka [77]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

k = 1/4, m = 16

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Scale factor is the ratio of the corresponding sides:</u>

k = 7/28 = 1/4

<u>Find m using the scale factor:</u>

m*1/4 = 4
m = 16

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Paha777 [63]

The equation that offers the best approximation to this result is: $h = -16\cdot t^{2}+28\cdot t + 8$ . (Choice D)

<h3>How to find the free fall formula for a given scenario</h3>

An object experiments a free fall when it is solely accelerated by gravity on the assumption of an <em>uniform</em> acceleration. The formula is described below:

$h =h_{o} + v_{o}\cdot t + \frac{1}{2}\cdot g\cdot t^{2}$ (1)

Where:

$h_{o}$ - Initial height, in feet.
$v_{o}$ - Initial speed, in feet per second.
$t$ - Time, in seconds.
$g$ - Gravitational acceleration, in feet per square second.

If we know that $t = 2\,s$ , $h_{o} = 8\,ft$ , $h = 0\,ft$ , $g = -32.174\,\frac{ft}{s^{2}}$ , then the height formula is:

$0 = 8 +2\cdot v_{o} - \frac{1}{2}\cdot (32.174)\cdot (2)^{2}$

$0 = -56.348+2\cdot v_{o}$

$v_{o} = 28.174\,\frac{ft}{s}$

The equation that offers the best approximation to this result is: $h = -16\cdot t^{2}+28\cdot t + 8$ . (Choice D)

To learn more on free fall, we kindly invite to check this verified question: brainly.com/question/13796105

5 0

3 years ago

Help! please i cant figure it out.

ki77a [65]

let's recall that the graph of a function passes the "vertical line test", however, that's not guarantee that its inverse will also be a function.

A function that has an inverse expression that is also a function, must be a one-to-one function, and thus it must not only pass the vertical line test, but also the horizontal line test.

Check the picture below, the left-side shows the function looping through up and down, it passes the vertical line test, in green, but it doesn't pass the horizontal line test.

now, check the picture on the right-side, if we just restrict its domain to be squeezed to only between [0 , π], it passes the horizontal line test, and thus with that constraint in place, it's a one-to-one function and thus its inverse is also a function, with that constraint in place, or namely with that constraint, cos(x) and cos⁻¹(x) are both functions.