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Ierofanga [76]
3 years ago
6

Need help asap will give brainly

Mathematics
1 answer:
Brrunno [24]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

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If f(x)= -3x + 1, then f^-1(x)=
UNO [17]

Answer:

f^-1(x) = (x-1)/-3

Step-by-step explanation:

Invert equation:

Describe X in original function:

multiplied by -3

add 1

Reverse order:

subtract 1

divide by -3

8 0
3 years ago
Shane wrapped the kite with paper. How many square inches of paper did Shane use to cover the front and back? 45 POINTS
arsen [322]

Answer:

576

Step-by-step explanation:

First off, we can use the area of a kite formula, (D1*D2)/2 to get the area of one side of the kite, which is simplified to 18 * 32 : which gets us 288. But because we are looking for the area of the front and back side, we multiply 288 by 2- getting the final answer of <u>576</u>.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The distance between points (x1, y1) and (x2, y2) is the square root of (x2 - x1)2 + (y2 - y1)2.
dusya [7]
The distance formula as shown below:

4 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is true about the base b of a logarithmic function?
Svetach [21]
The base b of a logarithmic function should be greater than zero and not equal to 1. Therefore, the first and second choice is the only ones left possible:

b> 0 and b = 1
b > 0 and b=/ 1

but it was stated earlier that the value of b should not be equal to 1, therefore, the answer is

b > 0 and b =/ 1<span />
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
F(x)=tan(x)
AleksAgata [21]
<span>Tan(x) = sin(x) / cos(x). Therefore, tan(x) pi/2 = 1/0, which doesn't exist. Imagine that, instead of 0, it's a number incredibly close to 0. The smaller the number in the denominator, the bigger the outcome. Therefore, we can think of 1/0 as infinity, or approaching infinity as one gets closer to 1/0. This is the same result approaching from the negative side, only it's negative infinity. If x=0, it's 0/1 instead (sin 0=0, cos 0=1). Anything divided by 1 is itself, so as x approaches 0, so does f(x).</span>
7 0
4 years ago
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