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jonny [76]
3 years ago
13

When a multinational firm decides to sell its products abroad, one of the risks the firm faces is that the government of the for

eign market charges the firm with dumping. Dumping occurs when
A. The same product sells at different prices in different countries.
B. A firm charges less than the cost to make the product so as to enter or win a market.
C. Lower quality versions of the product are sold abroad so as to be affordable.
D. Transfer prices are set artificially high so as to minimize tax payments.
Business
1 answer:
MAVERICK [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The correct answer is B. A firm charges less than the cost to make the product so as to enter or win a market.

Explanation:

Dumping is a tactic of penetration into international markets, which consists in setting prices below the real cost at which the company has made the export (the company that sells to another country), making it possible for the prices of said product they are inferior in the foreign country than in the country that manufactured them.

Quite simply, dumping refers to cases in which a product is sold in another country at a lower price than it has been produced. For example, suppose the case of shoes.

Company A produces shoes at a cost of $ 10 in country A. Its intention is to sell them in country B. So, finally, it exports shoes to B and sells them for $ 8. That is, below the production price.

Why would a company sell below the cost of production? It seems weird that a company sells below the cost of production. Since this means losing money.

The intention behind this is to gain market share and expel competitors. If a company has the capacity to assume such losses for a certain period of time, and other companies do not, the consequence is clear. The most powerful company will remain in the market and the rest will have to close.

Once the competitors have disappeared, the company that sold below cost price takes advantage of its position of power to set higher prices and earn more money.

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A $1,000 face value bond has a coupon rate of 7 percent, a market price of $989.40, and 10 years left to maturity. Interest is p
dlinn [17]

Answer:

4.95%    

Explanation:

For computing the yield to maturity when expressed in real terms, first we have to find out the yield to maturity by applying the RATE formula that is shown in the attachment

Given that,  

Present value = $989.40

Future value or Face value = $1,000  

PMT = 1,000 × 7% ÷ 2 = $35

NPER = 10 years × 2 = 20 years

The formula is shown below:  

= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)  

The present value come in negative  

So, after solving this,  the yield to maturity is 7.15%    

Now in real terms, it would be

= 7.15% - 2.2%

= 4.95%    

7 0
2 years ago
When a person owes more on an item (like a car or house) than it is worth, the person is said to be _________ on the loan. secur
nikklg [1K]

When a person owes more on an item (like a car or house) than it is worth, the person is said to be <u>upside down</u> on the loan.

<h3><u>Describe an upside-down loan.</u></h3>

You have an upside-down auto loan if you owe more money than the car is truly worth. You may need to make additional payments or modify your insurance coverage in order to prevent being upside-down on your loan or, at the very least, to shorten the amount of time you are in this perilous financial situation.

When you owe more on a car loan than the vehicle is worth, the loan is considered upside-down. If your car is worth $12,000 but your loan total is $15,000, for instance, your loan would be in the negative. You have $3,000 in negative equity in this situation.

It's not always a problem to have an outstanding auto loan. If you don't intend to sell your car, you can make loan payments until the balance is paid off. It won't affect the way you communicate with your lender.

Learn more about upside-down loans with the help of the given link:

brainly.com/question/24173549

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6 0
1 year ago
The following per unit cost information is available: direct materials $36, direct labor $24, variable manufacturing overhead $1
oksian1 [2.3K]

Answer:

Mark−up percentage = 18.75%

Explanation:

Total manufacturing cost= Direct material + Direct labor  + Variable overhead + Fixed overhead

= $36 + $24 + $18 + $40

= $118

Hence, the total manufacturing cost is $118.

Total selling cost = Fixed selling cost + Variable selling cost

Total selling cost = $28 + $14

Total selling cost = $42

Hence, the total selling cost is $42

Total cost = Total Manufacturing cost + Total selling cost

Total cost = $118 + $42

Total cost = $160

Mark−up percentage = ROI / Total cost * 100

Mark−up percentage = $30 / $160 * 100

Mark−up percentage = 0.1875 * 100

Mark−up percentage = 18.75%

7 0
2 years ago
Data related to the acquisition of timber rights and intangible assets during the current year ended December 31 are as follows:
stiv31 [10]

Answer:

a) Determination of the amount of the amortization, depletion, or impairment for the current year for each item:

   Item                 Impairment   Amortization    Depletion

                             Expense         Expense          Expense

a. Timber rights                                                  $304,000

b. Goodwill        $ 1,110,000

c. Patent                                     $456,000

b) Adjusting Journal Entries:

Date       Account Titles                                   Debit         Credit

Dec. 31   Depletion Expense -Timber rights  $304,000

              Accumulated Depreciation - Timber rights     $304,000

To record the depletion expense for Timber rights.

Dec. 31   Goodwill Impairment Loss             $1,110,000

              Accumulated Goodwill Impairment                $1,110,000

To record the impairment loss for Goodwill

Dec. 31   Amortization Expense - Patent     $456,000

              Accumulated Amortization - Patent                 $456,000

To record the amortization expense for Patent.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

February 22, Purchase of Timber rights $1,140,000

Estimated stand of timber = 6,000,000

Used board feet of timber = 1,600,000

Units of product Depletion

= $1,140,000/6,000,000 * 1,600,000

= $304,000

December 31, Goodwill impairment

= $1,110,000

April 3 Patent:

Cost incurred $9,120,000

Amortization per annum = $608,000 ($9,120,000/15)

Amortization for the current year = $456,000 ($608,000 * 3/4)

8 0
2 years ago
Which of the affirmative action strategies would involve an employer changing the company policy or the way an organization is d
TiliK225 [7]

Identifying and removing employment practices which are working against minority applicants and employees is the affirmative action strategies would involve an employer changing the company policy or the way an organization is decorated.

Affirmative action includes a set of policies and practices within a government or organization which seeks to include particular groups based on their race, gender, sexuality, or nationality.

In no way does affirmative action require an employer to hire an unqualified minority over a qualified non minority, which is important to note. Thus, affirmative actions include outreach efforts, training programs, and other positive steps.  

Hence, affirmative action gives a certain advantage to the minority groups in the recruitment process.

To learn more about affirmative action here:

brainly.com/question/15393594

#SPJ4

8 0
1 year ago
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