The main disadvantage of the valuation method is that the terminal value tends to dominate the total value in many cases.
In a free cash flow valuation, the intrinsic value equals present value of its free cash flow and thus, the net cash flow is left over for distribution to stockholders and debt-holders in each period.
- So, the disadvantage of the free cash flow valuation method is that the terminal value tends to dominate the total value in many cases.
Hence, the Option B is correct.
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I believe the information above is best supported by; the fact that producer surplus will increase if the price rises from $ 8 per unit to $10. This is due to the fact that there is a shortage in the market therefore demand will increase, this results to customers wanting to buy at a higher price than the initial cost, to satisfy their demand and need
Answer:
the revised net operating income is $ 26,400
Explanation:
Effect the Changes on the Units, Selling Price and Fixed Cost as described on the Original Income Statement.
Revised Income Statement
Sales( (12,900 units x 2)× ($20 per unit×0.90)) $ 464,400
Variable expenses ( $10× (12,900 units x 2)) ($ 258,000)
Contribution margin $206,400
Fixed expenses (144,000 + $36,000 ) ($180,000)
Net operating loss $ 26,400
Answer:
One typical example of this linkage between the economy at the macroeconomic level, and business decisions at the macroeconomic and microeconomic level, is what happened with Lehman Brothers in 2008.
Explanation:
Lehman Brothers was one of the main investment banks in the United States. During the years prior to the financial crisis, Lehman Brothers decided to pursue a risky but profitable strategy of over leveraging -lending a lot more money than they had as deposits.
Once the financial crisis hit, a macroeconomic event, it affected the company at the macro and micro level. At the macro level because Lehman Brothers itself ceased to exist as it went bankrupt, and at the micro level, because it had to enter a process to pay off some debtors, and some of the employees who were laid off due to the dissolution of the firm.
Answer:
3. MOH allocated to job= predetermined MOH rate * actual amount of allocation base used by the job
Explanation:
3. MOH allocated to job= predetermined MOH rate * actual amount of allocation base used by the job
The predetermined overhead rate is used to apply manufacturing overhead costs to production jobs. the quantity of a cost driver required by a particular job is multiplied by a predetermined overhead rate to determine the amount of overhead cost applied to the job.
An estimate is made of
- the amount of manufacturing over head that will be incurred during a specific period of time and
- the amount of the cost driver ( or activity base) that will be used or incurred during the same time period. the predetermined overhead rate is computed as follows
Predetermined Overhead Rate= Budgeted Manufacturing Overhead Cost/ Budgeted amount of cost driver
The predetermined overhead rate is used to apply manufacturing overhead costs to production jobs. The quantity of the cost driver ( or activity base ) required by a particular job is multiplied by the predetermined overhead rate to determine the amount of overhead cost applied to the job.
