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Y_Kistochka [10]
2 years ago
10

The speed of a wave in a medium is effected by____,____, and____

Physics
1 answer:
lisov135 [29]2 years ago
7 0

\huge\mathfrak\green{answer}

As per as my knowledge

The speed of a wave in a medium is affected by <u>d</u><u>e</u><u>n</u><u>s</u><u>i</u><u>t</u><u>y</u>,<u> </u><u>w</u><u>a</u><u>v</u><u>e</u><u>l</u><u>e</u><u>n</u><u>g</u><u>t</u><u>h</u> and <u>t</u><u>e</u><u>m</u><u>p</u><u>e</u><u>r</u><u>a</u><u>t</u><u>u</u><u>r</u><u>e</u><u> </u>:)

(Good luck on your test and mark me brainliest if this helps)

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8 0
1 year ago
In a chart the independent variable goes on the ___________. Question 5 options: left right middle
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The answer i think is left

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3 0
3 years ago
Determine the angle of an incline that would yield a constant velocity, given the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.10.
azamat

Answer:

\theta=5.71^{o}

Explanation:

In order to solve this problem, we mus start by drawing a free body diagram of the given situation (See attached picture).

From the free body diagram we can now do a sum of forces in the x and y direction. Let's start with the y-direction:

\sum F_{y}=0

-W_{y}+N=0

N=W_{y}

so:

N=mgcos(\theta)

now we can go ahead and do a sum of forces in the x-direction:

\sum F_{x}=0

the sum of forces in x is 0 because it's moving at a constant speed.

-f+W_{x}=0

-\mu_{k}N+mg sen(\theta)=0

-\mu_{k}mg cos(\theta)+mg sen(\theta)=0

so now we solve for theta. We can start by factoring mg so we get:

mg(-\mu_{k} cos(\theta)+sen(\theta))=0

we can divide both sides into mg so we get:

-\mu_{k} cos(\theta)+sen(\theta)=0

this tells us that the problem is independent of the mass of the object.

\mu_{k} cos(\theta)=sen(\theta)

we now divide both sides of the equation into cos(\theta) so we get:

\mu_{k}=\frac{sen(\theta)}{cos(\theta)}

\mu_{k}=tan(\theta)

so we now take the inverse function of tan to get:

\theta=tan^{-1}(\mu_{k})

so now we can find our angle:

\theta=tan^{-1}(0.10)

so

\theta=5.71^{o}

8 0
2 years ago
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