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IRINA_888 [86]
3 years ago
12

What is 1000 to the power of 8

Mathematics
1 answer:
levacccp [35]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

1000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000 OR 1×10^24

Step-by-step explanation:

Have a fantastic daaay!

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Referring to the figure, find the missing length.
vivado [14]

Answer:

5 units

Step-by-step explanation:

here;

perpendicular (p)= 3

base (b) = 4

hypotenuse (h) = c= ?

By Pythagorean relationship;

h²=p²+b²

or, h= √(p²+b²)

or, c= √(3²+9²)

or, c= √25

hence, c=5

5 0
3 years ago
Suppose that you have $10,000 to invest. Which investment yields the greater return over 6 years:
inna [77]
5.5% quarterly would give you slightly more.

8 0
2 years ago
What's the slope and y-intercept of the equation y = 9? Question 3 options: A) m = 0; b = -9 B) m = 0; b = 0 C) m = 0; b = 9 D)
erastovalidia [21]

Answer:

b

tep-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Given a standard deck of 52 cards, 3 cards are dealt without replacement. Using this situation, answer the questions below.<b
kherson [118]
Given that <span>3 cards are dealt without replacement in a </span><span>standard deck of 52 cards.

Part A:

There are 4 queens in a standard deck of 52 card, thus the probability that the first card is a queen is given by 4 / 52 = 1 / 13.

Since, the first card is not replaced, thus there are 3 queens remaining and 51 ards remaining in total, thus the probability that the second card is a queen is given</span> by 3 / 51 = 1 / 17

Similarly the probability that the third card is a queen is given by 2 / 50 = 1 / 25.

Therefore, the probability that <span>all three cards are queens is given by

\frac{1}{13} \times \frac{1}{17} \times \frac{1}{25} = \frac{1}{5525}



Part B:

Yes the probability of drawing a queen of heart is independent of the probability of drawing a queen of diamonds because they are separate cards and drawing one of the cards does not in any way affect the chance of drawing the other card.



Part C:

Given that the first card is a queen, then there are 3 queens remaining out of 51 cards remaining, thus the number of cards that are not queen is 51 - 3 = 48 cards.

Therefore, </span>if the first card is a queen, the probability that the second card will not be a queen is given by 48 / 51 = 16 / 17



Part D:

<span>Given that the first two card are queens, then there are 2 queens remaining out of 50 cards remaining.

Therefore, </span>if two of the three cards are queens ,<span>the probability that you will be dealt three queens</span> is given by 2 / 50 = 1 / 25 = 0.04



Part E:

<span>Given that the first two card are queens, then there are 2 queens remaining out of 50 cards remaining, thus the number of cards that are not queen is 50 - 2 = 48 cards.

Therefore, </span>if two of the three cards are queens ,the probability that the other card is not a queen is given by 48 / 50 = 24 / 25 = 0.96
8 0
3 years ago
What is 5,820,000,000 written in scientific notation?
Ksenya-84 [330]

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

the decimal would have to move 9 times from the zero position to get to between 5 and 8.

so 5.82 x 10^9

5 0
3 years ago
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