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3 years ago

If a number is divisible by both 2 and 3 then we can say the number is divisible by

2 answers:

Pie3 years ago

8 0

6 because if one number is divisible by another number's factors, then the first number is divisible by the second number. for example, take the numbers 18 and 6. the factors of 6 are 2 and 3. 18 is divisible by both 2 and 3, therefore it has to be divisible by 6.

andre [41]3 years ago

5 0

You might be interested in

A customer left a 15% tip for a meal that cost $64. What was the total amount the customer paid for the meal and tip?

Inessa05 [86]

Answer:

73.6

Step-by-step explanation:

64x15%=9.6

9.6+64=73.6

4 0

2 years ago

Consider the enlargement of the pentagon. A small pentagon has a bottom side length of x centimeters and left side length of 7 c

il63 [147K]

Answer:

3.3 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

From the above question, we can draw out a proportion

= Small pentagon = Large pentagon

= x/7 = 7/15

Cross Multiply

x × 15 = 7 × 7

15x = 49

x = 49/15

x = 3.2666666667 cm

Approximately= 3.3 cm

7 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Helppppppppppppppppppp

Daniel [21]

Hey there! :D

Remember that the question said estimate.

So

47% rounds to 50%

.5 and 1/2 are equal to 50%

89 rounds to 90.

You could say that:

1/2*90

0.5*90

90/2

These will all work and will give you the same answer.

I hope this helps!
~kaikers

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Briley has 347 marbles. Joey has 4 times as many as Briley. Carson has 799 fewer than Joey. How many marbles does Carson have?

Nadya [2.5K]

Answer:

697 marbles

Step-by-step explanation:

We know:

Briley- 374 marbles

Joey- 374*4

Carson- (374*4)-799

Solve:

374*4= 1496 (This is how many Joey has)

1496-799= 697 (This is how many Carson has)

Hope this helps!

6 0

3 years ago

What is 86% of 40?????????

Zina [86]

To find what 86% of 40 is, first convert 86% to a decimal, then multiply that decimal by 40.

86% = 0.86
0.86 • 40 = 34.4

So 86% of 40 is 34.4.

6 0

2 years ago