Answer:
∫((cos(x)*dx)/(√(1+sin(x)))) = 2√(1 + sin(x)) + c.
Step-by-step explanation:
In order to solve this question, it is important to notice that the derivative of the expression (1 + sin(x)) is present in the numerator, which is cos(x). This means that the question can be solved using the u-substitution method.
Let u = 1 + sin(x).
This means du/dx = cos(x). This implies dx = du/cos(x).
Substitute u = 1 + sin(x) and dx = du/cos(x) in the integral.
∫((cos(x)*dx)/(√(1+sin(x)))) = ∫((cos(x)*du)/(cos(x)*√(u))) = ∫((du)/(√(u)))
= ∫(u^(-1/2) * du). Integrating:
(u^(-1/2+1))/(-1/2+1) + c = (u^(1/2))/(1/2) + c = 2u^(1/2) + c = 2√u + c.
Put u = 1 + sin(x). Therefore, 2√(1 + sin(x)) + c. Therefore:
∫((cos(x)*dx)/(√(1+sin(x)))) = 2√(1 + sin(x)) + c!!!
2.65x + 2.50 = y
step by step explanation:
2.65 is how much for each mile, and the variable, x, represents the number of miles of the trip. so, we would do 2.65x to find out how much money you have to pay for the amounts of mile.
next, you would have to add the initial fee, which is 2.50. so 2.65x+2.50.
lastly, y represents the total cost of the trip. so, 2.65x + 2.50 = y
