1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Kipish [7]
3 years ago
7

Litton Company estimates that the factory overhead for the following year will be $1,250,000. The company has decided that the b

asis for applying factory overhead should be machine hours, which is estimated to be 40,000 hours. The machine hours for the month of April for all of the jobs were 4,780. If the actual factory overhead totaled $141,800, determine the over- or underapplied amount for the month.
Business
1 answer:
Minchanka [31]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Overapplied overhead= $7,575

Explanation:

<u>First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 1,250,000 / 40,000

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $31.25 per machine hour

<u>Now, we can allocate overhead:</u>

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 31.25*4,780

Allocated MOH= $149,375

<u>Finally, the over/under allocation:</u>

Under/over applied overhead= real overhead - allocated overhead

Under/over applied overhead= 141,800 - 149,375

Overapplied overhead= $7,575

You might be interested in
How do u add people as your friend?
Rudik [331]

Answer:

You click there profile, and then click add friend. and it will friend request them.

Explanation:

:)

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose you know a company's stock currently sells for $90 per share and the required return on the stock is 9 percent. You also
steposvetlana [31]

Answer:

$3.72

Explanation:

in order to determine the price of the stock we use the dividend discount model:

P₀ = Div₁ / (Re - g)

  • P₀ = $90
  • Div₁ = ?
  • Re = 9%
  • g = 9% / 2 = 4.5%

Div₁ = P₀ x (Re - g)

Div₁ = $90 x (9% - 4.5%) = $90 x 4.5% = $4.05

now the current dividend (Div₀) = Div₁ / (1 + Re) = $4.05 / (1 + 9%) = $4.05 / 1.09 = $3.7156 = $3.72

7 0
3 years ago
In 2007, Wagner Associates appropriated $65,000 of retained earnings to satisfy the restrictive covenant of a loan agreement. Wh
Dmitry [639]

Answer:

The financial statements effects of the appropriation are as follows:

a) Retained Earnings will reduce by $65,000 in the Income Statement and the Balance Sheet.

b) Cash balance will also reduce by $65,000 in the Balance Sheet.

Explanation:

Normally, partnerships can distribute or appropriate their profits according to their partnership agreements.  However, there may be restrictive loan covenants that can specify how much profits partnerships can distribute among the partners.  The purpose of such covenants is to ensure that the ability of the partnership to repay loans are not compromised through profit appropriations.

Financial institutions, therefore, to secure the loans advanced to businesses may include restrictive covenants.  Some restrictive covenants may specify the minimum cash balance to maintain.  Restrictive covenants, generally, remain measures to overcome unwanted business outcomes.  It is a form of insurance against loan repayments.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You plan to construct a restaurant on a 20,000 square foot lot
labwork [276]

Answer:

8,000 square foot

Explanation:

Total space available 20,000 square foot.

60 percent  to be used. space left?

If 60% is will be used, only 40% will be availble for construction.

40% of 20,000= 40/100x 20,000

                          =0.4 x 20,000

                          =8,000 square foot

6 0
3 years ago
Kicks corporation sells running shoes and during janurary they ran production machines for 20000 total hours and incurred 9000 i
Dafna11 [192]

Answer:

$0.3 per machine hour

Explanation:

The computation of the variable maintenance cost per machine hour using the high low method is shown below:

Variable cost per machine hour = (High maintenance cost - low maintenance  cost) ÷ (High machine hours - low machine hours)

= ($9,000 - $7,200) ÷ (20,000 machine hours - 14,000 machine hours)

= $1,800 ÷ 6,000 machine hours

= $0.3 per machine hour

7 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Curling is a sport where teams slide stones on ice and attempt to hit targets. Teams consist of four players. Suppose that Bob,
    6·1 answer
  • If a person invests $100,000 now and receives $4,000 per quarter for 10 years, the nominal rate of return per year is nearest to
    7·1 answer
  • Plans in which employees can earn additional compensation in return for certain types of performance are called
    9·1 answer
  • Kaitlin has not had a cigarette in 11 months. she has started running three days a week and is thrilled with her newfound energy
    14·1 answer
  • Sales volume plays a large role in determining per unit costs in the cost-plus pricing approach.
    5·1 answer
  • Why do we have to pay taxes
    8·1 answer
  • Enclosed with the bank statement received by Matthew Company at August 31 was an NSF check for $2,012. No entry has yet been mad
    12·1 answer
  • Stock A has a beta of .5, and investors expect it to return 5%.
    8·1 answer
  • What is the definition of stakeholders​
    7·1 answer
  • Drag each tile to the correct location on the table.
    5·2 answers
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!