Answer:
Step-by-step explanation :Answer
To chance an improper fraction into a mixed number first divide the numerator by the denominator
Example 11/5 divide 11 by 5 and you get 2.2 that means that 5 goes into 11 twice with some leftover which means the answer is going to be 2 plus a fraction
To get the fraction you multiply the denominator by the whole number you found (5*2) and subtract the numerator by that new number
5*2=10 11-10=1
Your new fraction is now 2 1/5
Answer:
<h3>x = 27.5</h3>
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
11.
A) EZ Pay Plan=0.15x
B) 40 to Go Plan=0.05x+40
12.
0.15x=0.05x+40
13.
x=400 minutes
14. The solution is the amount of minutes that it takes for both plans to cost the same amount. X has one solution, so it accounts for both equations.
15. EZ Pay Plan
Step-by-step explanation:
For 11, what you need to know is that the slope (coefficient of x) is the price per minute. 0.15 per minute and 0.05 per minute are charged, and therefore are the slope for those equations. The 40 on B is because it is the y intercept. No matter how long you use the object, you will always pay at least 40 dollars.
For 12, you have to find x for the minutes used.
For 13, if you do the process algebraically,
0.15x=0.05x+40
0.10x=40 (subtracted 0.05x from both sides)
x=400 (divided 0.10x and 40 by 0.10)
For 14, (no explanation)
For 15, if you substitute 200 as x, you would see that the EZ Pay Plan would make you pay 30 dollars while the 40 To Go Plan would make you pay 10+40 dollars, which 30<50.
(sorry for late response)
Answer:
n = - 2
Step-by-step explanation:
Given
- 6n - 2n = 16, that is
- 8n = 16 ( divide both sides by - 8 )
n = - 2
