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const2013 [10]
3 years ago
11

If accrued salaries were recorded on December 31 with a credit to Salaries Payable, the entry to record payment of these wages o

n the following January 5 would include:Select one:a. A debit to Cash and a credit to Salaries Payable.b. A debit to Cash and a credit to Prepaid Salaries.c. A debit to Salaries Payable and a credit to Cash.d. A debit to Salaries Payable and a credit to Salaries Expense.e. No entry would be necessary on January 5.
Business
1 answer:
nikdorinn [45]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

c. A debit to Salaries Payable and a credit to Cash.

Explanation:

As on December 31, entry to record the expense of Salaries which is accrued and not paid is

Salary A/c Dr.                

  To Salaries Payable

Now on the closing date, of previous year there is a liability outstanding of Salary Payable.

In the next year on 5th January the salary outstanding in opening balance sheet is paid.

For this, the payment will be made and accordingly, cash will be reduced.

Accordingly liability will be reduced for this, liability will be debited.

Therefore, correct option is

c. A debit to Salaries Payable and a credit to Cash.

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Fixed Overhead Spending and Volume Variances, Columnar and Formula Approaches
shutvik [7]

Answer:

Fixed Overheads Spending Variance = $5,000 Unfavorable(U).

Fixed Overheads Spending Variance = $20,000  Favorable (F).

Explanation:

Fixed Overheads Spending Variance = Actual Fixed Overheads  - Budgeted Fixed Overheads

                                                              = $305,000 -  $300,000

                                                              = $5,000 Unfavorable(U).

Fixed Overheads Spending Variance = Fixed Overheads at Actual Production  - Budgeted Fixed Overheads

                                                              = ($5.00 × 64,000) - $300,000

                                                              = $320,000 - $300,000

                                                              = $20,000  Favorable (F)

3 0
3 years ago
Deadweight loss is A. the reduction in consumer expenditure resulting from market failure. B. the reduction in economic surplus
never [62]

Answer:

The answer is: B) The reduction in economic surplus resulting from a market not being in competitive equilibrium.

Explanation:

Deadweight loss is an economic cost to society as a whole when market inefficiencies occur preventing it from reaching its equilibrium point. Market inefficiencies are caused by incorrect allocation of resources.

For example if a price ceiling is established, suppliers will tend to lower the quantity supplied while the quantity demanded either increases or stays the same. That economic deficiency resulting from an unsatisfied demand is what we call deadweight loss.

Other causes for deadweight loss are price floors (reduction of the quantity demanded) and taxation (shifts on the demand or supply curves).

5 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is not a basic consumer right?
Kitty [74]

Answer:

C

the right to be refunded

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Who is the son of the actress who played the mother-in-law of the “Sex and the City” character who graduated Harvard?
irinina [24]
Miranda Hobbes is the mother in law who graduated from harvard, she’s now a lawyer
7 0
3 years ago
A 4-year project has an annual operating cash flow of $53,500. At the beginning of the project, $4,450 in net working capital wa
Angelina_Jolie [31]

Answer:

E. $63,401

Explanation:

gain on disposal = salvage value of plant - book value on date of sale

                            = $5,790 - $4,820

                            = $970

tax on disposal = $970*35%

                          = $339.50

after tax salvage value = $5,790 - $339.50

                                       = $5,450.50

total cash flow in 4 years

= annual operating cash flow + net working capital + after tax salvage value

= $53,500 + $4,450 + $5,450.50

= $63,401

Therefore, The Year 4 cash flow is $63,401.

3 0
3 years ago
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