Answer:
Explanation:
Net Income = 20m
Sales = 100m
Debt-equity ration = 40%
Asset turnover = 0.60
A)
Profit Margin = Net Income / Sales = $20 million / $100 million = 20%
Equity Multiplier = 1 + Debt-Equity Ratio = 1 + 0.40 = 1.40
Return on Equity = Profit Margin * Asset Turnover * Equity Multiplier = 20% * 0.60 * 1.40 = 16.80%
B)
Debt-equity ratio = 60%
Equity Multiplier = 1 + Debt-Equity Ratio = 1 + 0.60 = 1.60
Return on Equity = Profit Margin * Asset Turnover * Equity Multiplier = 20% * 0.60 * 1.60 = 19.20%
As calculations provide, if debt-equity ratio increases to 60%, Return on equity will increase by 2.40% (19.20% - 16.80%)
Answer:
The answer is "Option 2".
Explanation:
please find the complete question in the attached file.
When a person does have an advantage for many other people’s perspectives, the additional factor is optimistic. The jazz club manager decides to purchase the cafe so that he can truly understand it. It can be accomplished through the integration of various business types. It a single individual formulates from of the situation Strong exogenous shock through the convergence of multiple business forms.
Answer:
$7,000 gift will be worth $19,922 after 17 years ( or 68 quarters) given the discount rate is 6.2% compounded quarterly.
Explanation:
The worth of $7,000 nowadays after 17 years is equal to its future value compounded for the time of 17 years or 68 quarters.
As the discounted rate is 6.2% compounded quarterly, we have:
Compounding period = 17 x 4 = 68; Interest rate = 6.2%/4 = 1.55%.
Apply the formula for future value to determine the value of $7,000 in 17 years as: 7,000 x (1+1.55%) ^68 = $19,922.
Thus, the answer is $19,922.
Answer:
A. True
Explanation:
Examples of situations that individually or in combination would normally lead to a lease being classified as a finance lease are:
(a) the lease transfers ownership of the underlying asset to the lessee by the end of the lease term;
(b) the lessee has the option to purchase the underlying asset at a price that is expected to be sufficiently lower than the fair value at the date the option becomes exercisable for it to be reasonably certain, at the inception date, that the option will be exercised;
(c) the lease term is for the major part of the economic life of the underlying asset even if title is not transferred;
(d) at the inception date, the present value of the lease payments amounts to at least substantially all of the fair value of the underlying asset; and
(e) the underlying asset is of such a specialised nature that only the lessee can use it without major modifications.
Since at the time of lease the net present value of the payments is 88% of the actual market price and the useful life of the asset was 70% at the end of the lease term and also the title of asset shall not be transferred to lessee at the end of lease term, therefore the lease shall not be classify as finance lease and it shall be classified as operating lease so the answer is A. True
