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Nataly [62]
2 years ago
7

State the success of j j Thompson model theory​

Physics
2 answers:
vovikov84 [41]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Thomson's atomic model was successful in explaining the overall neutrality of the atom. However, its propositions were not consistent with the results of later experiments. In 1906, J. J. Thomson was awarded the Nobel Prize in physics for his theories and experiments on electricity conduction by gases.

Summary. J.J. Thomson's experiments with cathode ray tubes showed that all atoms contain tiny negatively charged subatomic particles or electrons. Thomson proposed the plum pudding model of the atom, which had negatively-charged electrons embedded within a positively-charged "soup."

Tems11 [23]2 years ago
4 0

Explanation:

hope it help for you..:)

You might be interested in
You are planning to make an open rectangular box from an 8-inch by 15-inch piece of cardboard by cutting congruent squares from
Phoenix [80]

Let us say that x is the cut that we will make on the sides to make a box, therefore the new dimensions are:

l = 15 – 2x

w = 8 – 2x

It is 2x since we cut on two sides.

 

We know that volume is:

V = l w x

V = (15 – 2x) (8 – 2x) x

V = 120x – 30x^2 – 16x^2 + 4x^3

V = 120x – 46x^2 + 4x^3

 

Taking the 1st derivative:

dV/dx = 120 – 92x + 12x^2

 

Set dV/dx = 0 to get maxima:

120 – 92x + 12x^2 = 0

 

Divide by 12:

x^2 – (92/12)x + 10 = 0

(x – (92/24))^2 = -10 + (92/24)^2

x - 92/24 = ±2.17

x = 1.66, 6

We cannot have x = 6 because that will make our w negative, so:

x = 1.66 inches

 

So the largest volume is:

V = 120x – 46x^2 + 4x^3

V = 120(1.66) – 46(1.66)^2 + 4(1.66)^3

V = 90.74 cubic inches

4 0
3 years ago
A new ride being built at an amusement park includes a vertical drop of 71.6 meters. Starting from rest, the ride vertically dro
Allisa [31]

Answer: 2.6x107

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Find the value of currents through each branch
Irina-Kira [14]

Answer:

the branch currents are as follows:

  top left: I2 = 0.625 A

  middle left: I1 = 2.500 A

  bottom left: I1-I2 = 1.875 A

  top center: I2+I3 = 2.500 A

  bottom center: I2+I3-I1 = 0 A

  right: I3 = 1.875 A

Explanation:

You can write the KVL equations:

Top left loop:

  I2(4) +(I2 +I3)(2) +I1(1) = 10

Bottom left loop:

  (I1-I2)(4) +(I1-I2-I3)(2) +I1(1) = 10

Right loop:

  (I2+I3)(2) +(I2+I3-I1)(2) = 5

In matrix form, the equations are ...

  \left[\begin{array}{ccc}1&6&2\\7&-6&-2\\-2&4&4\end{array}\right]\cdot\left[\begin{array}{c}I_1\\I_2\\I_3\end{array}\right] =\left[\begin{array}{c}10\\10\\5\end{array}\right]

These equations have the solution ...

  \left[\begin{array}{c}I_1\\I_2\\I_3\end{array}\right] =\left[\begin{array}{c}2.500\\0.625\\1.875\end{array}\right]

This means the branch currents are as follows:

  top left: I2 = 0.625 A

  middle left: I1 = 2.500 A

  bottom left: I1-I2 = 1.875 A

  top center: I2+I3 = 2.500 A

  bottom center: I2+I3-I1 = 0 A

  right: I3 = 1.875 A

_____

This can be worked almost in your head by using the superposition theorem. When the 5V source is shorted, the 10V source is supplying (I1) to a circuit that is the 4 Ω and 2 Ω resistors in parallel with their counterparts, and that 2+1 Ω combination in series with 1 Ω for a total of a 4Ω load on the 10 V source. That is, I1 due to the 10V source is 2.5 A, and it is nominally split in half through the upper and lower branches of the circuit. There is no current flowing through the (shorted) 5 V source branch.

When the 10V source is shorted, the 5V source is supplying a 4 +4 Ω branch in parallel with a 2 +2 Ω branch, a total load of 8/3 Ω. This makes the current from that source (I3) be 5/(8/3) = 15/8 = 1.875 A. There is zero current from this source through the 1 Ω resistor.

Nominally, the current from the 5V source splits 2/3 through the 2 Ω branch and 1/3 through the 4 Ω branch.

Using superposition, I2 = I1/2 -I3/3 = (2.5 A/2) -(1/3)(15/8 A) = 0.625 A. This is the same answer as above, without any matrix math.

  (I1, I2, I3) = (2.5 A, 0.625 A, 1.875 A)

__

It helps to be familiar with the formulas for resistors in series and parallel.

8 0
2 years ago
A billiard ball of mass m moving with speed v1=1 m/s collides head-on with a second ball of mass 2m which is at rest. What is th
Soloha48 [4]

Answer:

The velocity of mass 2m is  v_B = 0.67 m/s

Explanation:

From the question w are told that

     The mass of the billiard ball A is =m

     The initial speed  of the billiard ball A = v_1 =1 m/s

    The mass of the billiard ball B is = 2 m

    The initial speed  of the billiard ball  B = 0

Let the final speed  of the billiard ball A  = v_A

Let The finial speed  of the billiard ball  B = v_B

      According to the law of conservation of Energy

                 \frac{1}{2} m (v_1)^2 + \frac{1}{2} 2m (0) ^ 2 = \frac{1}{2} m (v_A)^2 + \frac{1}{2} 2m (v_B)^2

              Substituting values  

                \frac{1}{2} m (1)^2  = \frac{1}{2} m (v_A)^2 + \frac{1}{2} 2m (v_B)^2

Multiplying through by \frac{1}{2}m

                1 =v_A^2 + 2 v_B ^2 ---(1)

    According to the law of conservation of Momentum

            mv_1 + 2m(0) = mv_A + 2m v_B

    Substituting values

            m(1)  = mv_A + 2mv_B

Multiplying through by m

           1 = v_A + 2v_B ---(2)

making v_A subject of the equation 2

            v_A = 1 - 2v_B

Substituting this into equation 1

         (1 -2v_B)^2 + 2v_B^2 = 1

         1 - 4v_B + 4v_B^2 + 2v_B^2 =1

          6v_B^2  -4v_B +1 =1

          6v_B^2 -4v_B =0

Multiplying through by \frac{1}{v_B}

          6v_B -4 = 0

            v_B = \frac{4}{6}

            v_B = 0.67 m/s

4 0
3 years ago
If an electronin an electron beam experiences a downward force of 2.0x10^-14N while traveling in a magnetic field of 8.3x10^-2T
Anni [7]

Answer:

Explanation:

Given that,

Force is downward I.e negative y-axis

F = -2 × 10^-14 •j N

Magnetic field is westward, +x direction

B = 8.3 × 10^-2 •i T

Charge of an electron

q = 1.6 × 10^-19C

Velocity and it direction?

Force in a magnetic field is given as

F = q(V×B)

Angle between V and B is 270, check attachment

The cross product of velocity and magnetic field

F =qVB•Sin270

2 × 10^-14 = 1.6 × 10^-19 × V × 8.3 × 10^-2

Then,

v = 2 × 10^-14 / (1.6 × 10^-19 × 8.3 × 10^-2)

v = 1.51 × 10^6 m/s

Direction of the force

Let x be the direction of v

-F•j = v•x × B•i

From cross product

We know that

i×j = k, j×i = -k

j×k =i, k×j = -i

k×i = j, i×k = -j OR -k×i = -j

Comparing -k×i = -j to given problem

We notice that

-F•j = q ( -V•k × B×i)

So, the direction of V is negative z- direction

V = -1.51 × 10^6 •k m/s

6 0
2 years ago
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