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miskamm [114]
3 years ago
15

if you have 20 yards of ribbon and need to vut it into 2 yard lengths how many cuts do you have to make. step by step if u can i

f not its fine
Mathematics
2 answers:
wlad13 [49]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: 20 yards of ribbon in total. Need to make 2 yards each.

To find out how many yards you need to cut, divide:

20 / 2 = 10

So, you need to make 10 cuts for the 20 yards.

Hope this helped.

Pani-rosa [81]3 years ago
6 0
The best answer is 10 !
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Find the number of elements in A 1 ∪ A 2 ∪ A 3 if there are 200 elements in A 1 , 1000 in A 2 , and 5, 000 in A 3 if (a) A 1 ⊆ A
lina2011 [118]

Answer:

a. 4600

b. 6200

c. 6193

Step-by-step explanation:

Let n(A) the number of elements in A.

Remember, the number of elements in A_1 \cup A_2 \cup A_3 satisfies

n(A_1 \cup A_2 \cup A_3)=n(A_1)+n(A_2)+n(A_3)-n(A_1\cap A_2)-n(A_1\cap A_3)-n(A_2\cap A_3)-n(A_1\cap A_2 \cap A_3)

Then,

a) If A_1\subseteq A_2, n(A_1 \cap A_2)=n(A_1)=200, and if A_2\subseteq A_3, n(A_2\cap A_3)=n(A_2)=1000

Since A_1\subseteq A_2\; and \; A_2\subseteq A_3, \; then \; A_1\cap A_2 \cap A_3= A_1

So

n(A_1 \cup A_2 \cup A_3)=\\=n(A_1)+n(A_2)+n(A_3)-n(A_1\cap A_2)-n(A_1\cap A_3)-n(A_2\cap A_3)-n(A_1\cap A_2 \cap A_3)=\\=200+1000+5000-200-200-1000-200=4600

b) Since the sets are pairwise disjoint

n(A_1 \cup A_2 \cup A_3)=\\n(A_1)+n(A_2)+n(A_3)-n(A_1\cap A_2)-n(A_1\cap A_3)-n(A_2\cap A_3)-n(A_1\cap A_2 \cap A_3)=\\200+1000+5000-0-0-0-0=6200

c) Since there are two elements in common to each pair of sets and one element in all three sets, then

n(A_1 \cup A_2 \cup A_3)=\\=n(A_1)+n(A_2)+n(A_3)-n(A_1\cap A_2)-n(A_1\cap A_3)-n(A_2\cap A_3)-n(A_1\cap A_2 \cap A_3)=\\=200+1000+5000-2-2-2-1=6193

8 0
3 years ago
Use the given information to solve for x and y
Anuta_ua [19.1K]

Answer:

x = 10 and y = 7

Step-by-step explanation:

Equalateral triangle means all sides are equal.

x = 10,  easy

make y + 3 = 10

y = 7

Easy, no real math needed. lol

4 0
3 years ago
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ollegr [7]

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

1+0=1

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